a client who is post operative from a spinal fusion surgery reports a sudden onset of severe headache when sitting up what is the nurses priority acti
Logo

Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI PN Exit Exam

1. A client who is post-operative from a spinal fusion surgery reports a sudden onset of severe headache when sitting up. What is the nurse’s priority action?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct action is to lay the client flat and notify the healthcare provider. A severe headache in a post-operative spinal fusion patient can indicate a spinal fluid leak, which is a medical emergency. By laying the client flat, the nurse helps reduce symptoms by decreasing pressure differentials. Administering pain medication without further assessment or intervention is inappropriate before identifying the cause of the headache. Encouraging the client to drink more fluids is not the priority when a serious complication like a spinal fluid leak is suspected. While assessing the surgical site is important, it is not the priority when a potentially life-threatening complication is suspected.

2. The nurse is assisting the recreational director of a long-term care facility in planning outdoor activities for the wheelchair-bound older residents who are mentally alert. Which activity meets the physical and social needs of these residents?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A tea party in the courtyard provides a social and physical activity suitable for wheelchair-bound older residents who are mentally alert. It offers an opportunity for social interaction, enjoyment of the outdoors, and participation in a physical activity without the need for extensive mobility. An open-air concert may not provide the same level of social interaction or physical engagement as a tea party. A team ring-toss competition may be physically challenging for wheelchair-bound residents. A picnic in the park could present challenges related to accessibility and might not foster the same level of social interaction as a tea party in a more contained courtyard setting.

3. A client post-coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) surgery is concerned about the risk of infection. What is the most important preventive measure the nurse should emphasize during discharge teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Keep the incision sites clean and dry.' After CABG surgery, maintaining the cleanliness and dryness of the incision sites is crucial to prevent infections. This practice reduces the risk of introducing harmful microorganisms to the surgical wound, promoting healing and preventing complications. Option A, while important, does not fully encompass the preventive measures necessary to avoid infections post-surgery. Option B is significant if antibiotics are prescribed, but ensuring cleanliness directly addresses infection prevention. Option C is reactive and focuses on addressing infection after it occurs, rather than proactively preventing it.

4. The HCP gives a pregnant woman a prescription for one prenatal vitamin with iron daily and tells her that she needs to increase foods in her diet because her hemoglobin is 8.2 grams/dL. When a list of iron-rich foods is given to the client, she tells the PN that she is a vegetarian and does not eat anything that "bleeds." Which instruction should the PN provide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Vegetarians can increase their iron intake through plant-based sources such as green leafy vegetables, oatmeal, and legumes, which are rich in iron.

5. A client with blood type AB negative delivers a newborn with blood type A positive. The cord blood reveals a positive indirect Coombs test. Which is the implication of this finding?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A positive indirect Coombs test indicates that the mother's Rh antibodies have crossed the placenta and are present in the neonatal blood, which can lead to hemolytic disease of the newborn. This finding necessitates close monitoring and potential intervention. Choice A is incorrect because a positive Coombs test does not indicate an infectious blood-borne disease. Choice B is incorrect as phototherapy for physiologic jaundice is not related to a positive Coombs test result. Choice D is incorrect because a positive Coombs test does not indicate that the mother no longer needs Rho immune globulin injections; in fact, it suggests a need for further management to prevent hemolytic disease of the newborn.

Similar Questions

The PN and UAP enter a client's room and find the client lying on the bed. The PN determines that the client is unresponsive. Which instruction should the PN give the UAP first?
A client is post-operative day two from an abdominal surgery and reports feeling weak and lightheaded when attempting to get out of bed. What is the nurse's priority action?
In obtaining an orthostatic vital sign measurement, what action should the nurse take first?
The nurse is providing care for a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus who is receiving NPH insulin. The nurse notices that the client's evening glucose levels are consistently above 260 mg/dl. What does this indicate?
When caring for a client with colostomy, which topical skin preparation should the PN apply around the stoma?

Access More Features

HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses