Nursing Elites

1. A client who is post-operative from a spinal fusion surgery reports a sudden onset of severe headache when sitting up. What is the nurse’s priority action?

• A. Administer pain medication.
• B. Lay the client flat and notify the healthcare provider.
• C. Encourage the client to drink more fluids.
• D. Assess the client’s surgical site for drainage.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct action is to lay the client flat and notify the healthcare provider. A severe headache in a post-operative spinal fusion patient can indicate a spinal fluid leak, which is a medical emergency. By laying the client flat, the nurse helps reduce symptoms by decreasing pressure differentials. Administering pain medication without further assessment or intervention is inappropriate before identifying the cause of the headache. Encouraging the client to drink more fluids is not the priority when a serious complication like a spinal fluid leak is suspected. While assessing the surgical site is important, it is not the priority when a potentially life-threatening complication is suspected.

2. When a woman in early pregnancy is leaving the clinic, she blushes and asks the nurse if it is true that sex during pregnancy is bad for the baby. What is the best response for the nurse to give?

• A. The baby is protected by the sac. Sex is perfectly alright.
• B. It is unlikely to harm the baby. What you do with your personal life is your concern.
• C. Intercourse during pregnancy is usually alright, but you need to ask the doctor if it is acceptable for you.
• D. In a normal pregnancy, intercourse will not harm the baby. However, many women experience a change in desire. How are you feeling?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Choice D is the best response as it reassures the patient that intercourse in a normal pregnancy will not harm the baby. It also shows empathy by acknowledging that many women experience changes in sexual desire during pregnancy. This response validates the patient's concerns and opens up a dialogue about her feelings. Choice A is incorrect as it lacks information about changes in sexual desire and oversimplifies the situation. Choice B is dismissive of the patient's concerns and does not provide adequate information. Choice C is not the best response as it suggests asking the doctor without offering immediate reassurance or addressing the patient's worries.

3. Before administering an antibiotic that can cause nephrotoxicity, which lab value is most important for the PN to review?

• A. Hemoglobin and Hematocrit
• B. Serum Calcium
• C. Serum Creatinine
• D. WBC

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Serum creatinine is the most important lab value to review before administering an antibiotic that can cause nephrotoxicity. This is because serum creatinine is a key indicator of kidney function. An elevated serum creatinine level may indicate impaired renal function, and administering nephrotoxic drugs in such situations can further damage the kidneys. Monitoring serum creatinine levels helps healthcare providers assess renal function and make informed decisions regarding drug administration. Choices A, B, and D are not as directly related to kidney function and nephrotoxicity, making them less crucial in this scenario. Hemoglobin and hematocrit levels assess for anemia, serum calcium levels are more related to bone health and nerve function, and WBC count is associated with immune response, none of which directly reflect kidney function or the risk of nephrotoxicity.

4. Which is the most important safety measure when administering a medication through a patient’s central venous catheter (CVC)?

• A. Using a sterile technique
• B. Ensuring correct placement of the CVC
• C. Flushing the CVC with saline after administration
• D. Monitoring for signs of infection

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important safety measure when administering a medication through a patient’s central venous catheter (CVC) is ensuring the correct placement of the CVC. This is crucial to prevent complications such as extravasation, infection, or improper drug delivery. While using a sterile technique, flushing the CVC with saline after administration, and monitoring for signs of infection are all important aspects of CVC care, ensuring the correct placement of the catheter takes precedence as it directly impacts patient safety during medication administration.

5. When administering parenteral iron, which action would be inconsistent with proper administration?

• A. Using the Z-track method
• B. Using an air bubble to avoid withdrawing medication into subcutaneous tissue
• C. Not massaging the injection site
• D. Using the deltoid muscle for administration

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Using the deltoid muscle for administration. Administering parenteral iron in the deltoid muscle is not recommended due to the risk of irritation and pain. The Z-track method (choice A) is preferred to prevent staining and irritation of the skin when administering irritating medications like iron. Using an air bubble (choice B) to avoid withdrawing medication into subcutaneous tissue is a common practice to ensure accurate administration. Not massaging the injection site (choice C) is also a standard practice to prevent potential irritation or bleeding at the injection site.

Similar Questions