Nursing Elites

1. A client who is post-operative from a spinal fusion surgery reports a sudden onset of severe headache when sitting up. What is the nurse’s priority action?

• A. Administer pain medication.
• B. Lay the client flat and notify the healthcare provider.
• C. Encourage the client to drink more fluids.
• D. Assess the client’s surgical site for drainage.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct action is to lay the client flat and notify the healthcare provider. A severe headache in a post-operative spinal fusion patient can indicate a spinal fluid leak, which is a medical emergency. By laying the client flat, the nurse helps reduce symptoms by decreasing pressure differentials. Administering pain medication without further assessment or intervention is inappropriate before identifying the cause of the headache. Encouraging the client to drink more fluids is not the priority when a serious complication like a spinal fluid leak is suspected. While assessing the surgical site is important, it is not the priority when a potentially life-threatening complication is suspected.

2. While assessing an older male client who takes psychotropic medications, the nurse observes uncontrollable hand movements and excessive blinking. Which information in the client's medical record should the nurse review?

• A. Prescription for lorazepam
• B. History of Parkinson's disease
• C. Screening for tardive dyskinesia
• D. Recent urine drug screen report

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The symptoms of uncontrollable hand movements and excessive blinking are indicative of tardive dyskinesia, a possible side effect of long-term use of psychotropic medications. Reviewing the screening for tardive dyskinesia is crucial to assess if these symptoms are related to the medication. Option A, the prescription for lorazepam, is less relevant as the focus should be on potential side effects rather than the specific medication. Option B, history of Parkinson's disease, is not directly related to the observed symptoms, which are more likely linked to medication side effects. Option D, recent urine drug screen report, is not as pertinent in this context compared to reviewing the screening for tardive dyskinesia.

3. After a hip replacement surgery, a client is instructed to use an abduction pillow while in bed. What is the primary purpose of this device?

• A. To reduce the risk of blood clots.
• B. To prevent hip dislocation.
• C. To improve circulation in the legs.
• D. To alleviate pain and discomfort.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The primary purpose of using an abduction pillow after hip replacement surgery is to prevent hip dislocation. The abduction pillow keeps the legs separated, which reduces the risk of hip dislocation by preventing excessive internal rotation and adduction of the hip joint. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as the main goal of using the abduction pillow is to maintain proper positioning and stability of the hip joint to prevent dislocation, rather than addressing blood clots, circulation, or pain relief.

4. An 8-year-old is placed in 90-90 traction for a fractured femur resulting from a motor vehicle collision. Which finding requires further action by the nurse?

• A. No bowel movement for two days
• B. Mother assists child in changing positions
• C. Weights are touching the foot of the bed
• D. Child is able to move the toes freely when tickled

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. In 90-90 traction, the weights should hang freely and not touch the foot of the bed to maintain proper traction and bone alignment. Option A is not necessarily a concern as bowel movements can be influenced by various factors, including diet changes and pain medication. Option B indicates good caregiver involvement, promoting comfort and preventing complications. Option D demonstrates neurovascular function, which is a positive finding. Therefore, the weights touching the foot of the bed is the finding that requires immediate attention to ensure the effectiveness of the traction.

5. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate for managing delirium in an elderly patient?

• A. Keeping the room brightly lit
• B. Administering sedatives as needed
• C. Encouraging family presence
• D. Restricting fluids

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Encouraging family presence is the most appropriate intervention for managing delirium in elderly patients. This intervention provides orientation, reassurance, and comfort, which can help reduce confusion and anxiety, thus aiding in managing delirium. Keeping the room brightly lit (Choice A) may worsen delirium as it can disrupt the patient's sleep-wake cycle. Administering sedatives (Choice B) should be avoided unless absolutely necessary due to the risk of worsening delirium. Restricting fluids (Choice D) is not a recommended intervention for managing delirium, as hydration is important for overall patient well-being.

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