HESI LPN
HESI PN Exit Exam
1. A client who is post-operative from a spinal fusion surgery reports a sudden onset of severe headache when sitting up. What is the nurse’s priority action?
- A. Administer pain medication.
- B. Lay the client flat and notify the healthcare provider.
- C. Encourage the client to drink more fluids.
- D. Assess the client’s surgical site for drainage.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct action is to lay the client flat and notify the healthcare provider. A severe headache in a post-operative spinal fusion patient can indicate a spinal fluid leak, which is a medical emergency. By laying the client flat, the nurse helps reduce symptoms by decreasing pressure differentials. Administering pain medication without further assessment or intervention is inappropriate before identifying the cause of the headache. Encouraging the client to drink more fluids is not the priority when a serious complication like a spinal fluid leak is suspected. While assessing the surgical site is important, it is not the priority when a potentially life-threatening complication is suspected.
2. A female client taking a liquid iron preparation expresses concern that her tooth color has darkened since starting the medication. What action should the PN implement?
- A. Teach the client to use a straw when taking the medication to reduce further tooth staining
- B. Advise the client to withhold further doses until consulting with the healthcare provider
- C. Reassure the client that this change indicates the medication is having the desired effect
- D. Determine if the client is also experiencing mouth or gum pain and difficulty swallowing
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the PN to implement is to teach the client to use a straw when taking the medication to reduce further tooth staining. Using a straw minimizes contact between the iron preparation and the teeth, helping prevent additional staining. Choice B is incorrect because withholding doses without consulting the healthcare provider could be detrimental to the client's health. Choice C is incorrect because darkening of tooth color is not an expected effect of liquid iron preparation and should not be reassured as a desired effect. Choice D is incorrect as it does not directly address the client's concern about tooth staining.
3. The mother of a 9-month-old child diagnosed with respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) yesterday calls the clinic to inquire if it will be all right to take her infant to a friend's child's first birthday party the following day. Which response should the nurse provide?
- A. Do not expose other children as the virus is very contagious even without direct contact
- B. The child will no longer be contagious, no need to take any further precautions
- C. The child can be around other children but should wear a mask
- D. Make sure there are no children under the age of 5 months around the infected child
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct response is A: 'Do not expose other children as the virus is very contagious even without direct contact.' RSV is highly contagious, especially in young children. Allowing the infected child to attend a birthday party can put other children at risk of contracting the virus. Choice B is incorrect as RSV can remain contagious for a period of time. Choice C is not sufficient, as wearing a mask may not entirely prevent the spread of the virus. Choice D is inaccurate, as children under 5 months are not the only ones susceptible to RSV; all young children are at risk.
4. A post-operative client is recovering from a total knee replacement and is prescribed patient-controlled analgesia (PCA). What is the primary advantage of PCA for managing post-operative pain?
- A. It allows for consistent pain control without overmedication.
- B. It eliminates the need for oral pain medication.
- C. It reduces the risk of opioid addiction.
- D. It requires less monitoring by nursing staff.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The primary advantage of PCA for managing post-operative pain is that it allows the client to control the administration of pain medication, leading to consistent pain control without overmedication. Choice B is incorrect as PCA does not eliminate the need for oral pain medication; it supplements it. Choice C is incorrect because while PCA can help reduce opioid consumption, it does not directly reduce the risk of opioid addiction. Choice D is incorrect as PCA actually requires close monitoring by nursing staff to ensure proper use and prevent complications.
5. An older postoperative client has the nursing diagnosis 'impaired mobility related to fear of falling.' Which desired outcome best directs the PN's actions for the client?
- A. The client will ambulate with assistance every 4 hours
- B. The physical therapist will instruct the client in the use of a walker
- C. The client will use self-affirmation statements to decrease fear
- D. The PN will place a gait belt on the client prior to ambulation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Using self-affirmation statements helps the client reduce fear and regain confidence in mobility, which is essential for improving impaired mobility. Choice A focuses more on the frequency of ambulation rather than addressing the fear of falling. Choice B involves the physical therapist and the use of a walker, which may not directly address the client's fear. Choice D is a safety measure but does not specifically target the client's fear of falling.
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