Nursing Elites

1. A client who is post-operative from a spinal fusion surgery reports a sudden onset of severe headache when sitting up. What is the nurse’s priority action?

• A. Administer pain medication.
• B. Lay the client flat and notify the healthcare provider.
• C. Encourage the client to drink more fluids.
• D. Assess the client’s surgical site for drainage.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct action is to lay the client flat and notify the healthcare provider. A severe headache in a post-operative spinal fusion patient can indicate a spinal fluid leak, which is a medical emergency. By laying the client flat, the nurse helps reduce symptoms by decreasing pressure differentials. Administering pain medication without further assessment or intervention is inappropriate before identifying the cause of the headache. Encouraging the client to drink more fluids is not the priority when a serious complication like a spinal fluid leak is suspected. While assessing the surgical site is important, it is not the priority when a potentially life-threatening complication is suspected.

2. A client is recovering from a right-sided mastectomy and is concerned about lymphedema. What should the nurse include in the discharge teaching to minimize this risk?

• A. Encourage wearing tight clothing on the affected arm.
• B. Advise against lifting heavy objects with the affected arm.
• C. Recommend the client sleep on the affected side.
• D. Suggest frequent massage of the affected arm.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Advise against lifting heavy objects with the affected arm. Lifting heavy objects with the affected arm can increase the risk of lymphedema. It is important for clients to avoid activities that strain the affected arm to minimize the risk of developing lymphedema. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because wearing tight clothing on the affected arm, sleeping on the affected side, and frequent massage of the affected arm can potentially worsen lymphedema or impede the recovery process. Tight clothing can impede lymphatic flow, sleeping on the affected side can restrict circulation, and frequent massage can exacerbate swelling in the arm.

3. A client post-coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) surgery is concerned about the risk of infection. What is the most important preventive measure the nurse should emphasize during discharge teaching?

• A. Avoid touching the incision sites with bare hands.
• B. Take all prescribed antibiotics as directed.
• C. Report any signs of infection to the healthcare provider immediately.
• D. Keep the incision sites clean and dry.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Keep the incision sites clean and dry.' After CABG surgery, maintaining the cleanliness and dryness of the incision sites is crucial to prevent infections. This practice reduces the risk of introducing harmful microorganisms to the surgical wound, promoting healing and preventing complications. Option A, while important, does not fully encompass the preventive measures necessary to avoid infections post-surgery. Option B is significant if antibiotics are prescribed, but ensuring cleanliness directly addresses infection prevention. Option C is reactive and focuses on addressing infection after it occurs, rather than proactively preventing it.

4. An adult female client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is receiving NPH insulin 35 units in the morning. Which finding should the nurse document as evidence that the amount of insulin is inadequate?

• A. States that her feet are constantly cold and numb
• B. A wound on the ankle that starts to drain and becomes painful
• C. Consecutive evening serum glucose greater than 260 mg/dL
• D. Reports nausea in the morning but still able to eat breakfast

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Consistently high evening glucose levels indicate that the current insulin dosage is inadequate to maintain proper glucose control. Choice A is incorrect because cold and numb feet are more indicative of peripheral vascular disease rather than inadequate insulin dosage. Choice B describes a wound that may be related to poor circulation or neuropathy but not necessarily inadequate insulin dosage. Choice D suggests gastrointestinal issues that are not directly related to insulin dosage adequacy.

5. At the end of a 12-hour shift, the PN observes the urine in a client's drainage bag as seen in the picture. Which action should the PN take next?

• A. Offer to administer a prescribed PRN analgesic
• B. Obtain a finger stick capillary glucose level
• C. Determine if the client's bladder feels distended
• D. Note the most recent white blood cell count

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Noting the white blood cell count is the most appropriate action in this situation. Changes in urine appearance could indicate infection, and assessing the white blood cell count helps in evaluating the possibility of infection. This is crucial for understanding the client's overall condition. The other options are not directly related to assessing infection based on urine appearance. Offering analgesics, checking glucose levels, or determining bladder distention may not address the underlying issue of a potential infection.

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