Nursing Elites

1. During a clinical conference with a group of nursing students, the instructor is describing burn classifications. The instructor determines that the teaching has been successful when the group identifies what as characteristic of full-thickness burns?

• A. Skin that is reddened, dry, and slightly swollen
• B. Skin appearing wet with significant pain
• C. Skin with blistering and swelling
• D. Skin that is leathery and dry with some numbness

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Full-thickness burns, also known as third-degree burns, are characterized by a leathery, dry appearance with numbness due to nerve damage. This type of burn extends through all layers of the skin, affecting nerve endings. Choice A describes characteristics of superficial partial-thickness burns, which involve the epidermis and part of the dermis. Choice B describes characteristics of superficial burns, or first-degree burns, which only affect the epidermis. Choice C describes characteristics of superficial to mid-dermal burns, also known as second-degree burns, which involve the epidermis and part of the dermis but do not extend through all skin layers. Therefore, the correct answer is D.

2. A nurse is caring for an infant with intractable vomiting. For what complication is it most important for the nurse to assess?

• A. Acidosis
• B. Alkalosis
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypernatremia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When an infant experiences intractable vomiting, it can lead to the loss of stomach acids, resulting in metabolic alkalosis. Alkalosis is characterized by elevated blood pH and can lead to serious complications. Assessing for alkalosis is essential in this scenario to monitor and manage the infant's condition. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because in this context, the primary concern is the metabolic imbalance caused by excessive vomiting, leading to alkalosis rather than acidosis, hyperkalemia, or hypernatremia.

3. A nurse is caring for an infant with a tentative diagnosis of hypertrophic pyloric stenosis (HPS). What is most important for the nurse to assess?

• A. Quality of the cry
• B. Signs of dehydration
• C. Coughing up feedings
• D. Characteristics of the stool

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Signs of dehydration. Infants with hypertrophic pyloric stenosis (HPS) are at high risk of dehydration due to frequent vomiting. Assessing for signs of dehydration, such as decreased urine output, dry mucous membranes, and sunken fontanelles, is crucial for early intervention and management. Choices A, C, and D are not the most critical assessments for HPS. The quality of the cry (choice A) may not provide as much relevant information in this case. Coughing up of feedings (choice C) may be a symptom but is not as crucial as assessing for dehydration. Characteristics of the stool (choice D) are important but assessing for signs of dehydration takes precedence due to the immediate risk it poses to the infant's health.

4. The nurse is assessing a 4-year-old client. Which finding suggests to the nurse this child may have a genetic disorder?

• A. The inquiry determines the child had feeding problems.
• B. The child weighs 40 lb (18.2 kg) and is 40 in (101.6 cm) in height.
• C. The child has low-set ears with lobe creases.
• D. The child can hop on one foot but cannot skip.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Low-set ears with lobe creases are often associated with genetic disorders, such as Down syndrome, and can indicate underlying chromosomal abnormalities. This physical characteristic is a common feature seen in various genetic syndromes. The other choices, including feeding problems, weight and height measurements, and motor skills, are not typically specific indicators of genetic disorders in the absence of other associated features.

5. When developing the plan of care for a child with burns requiring fluid replacement therapy, what information would the nurse expect to include?

• A. Administration of colloid initially followed by a crystalloid
• B. Determination of fluid replacement based on the type of burn
• C. Administration of most of the volume during the first 8 hours
• D. Monitoring of hourly urine output to achieve less than 1 mL/kg/hr

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. In fluid replacement therapy for burns, it is crucial to administer most of the volume during the first 8 hours to prevent shock and maintain perfusion. This rapid administration is essential to stabilize the child's condition. Choices A and B are incorrect because the initial fluid replacement in burns typically involves administering crystalloids, not colloids, and the fluid replacement is generally calculated based on the extent of the burn injury, not the type of burn. Choice D is incorrect as monitoring hourly urine output to achieve less than 1 mL/kg/hr is not recommended in burn patients; instead, urine output should be monitored to achieve 1-2 mL/kg/hr in children to ensure adequate renal perfusion.

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