Nursing Elites

1. During a clinical conference with a group of nursing students, the instructor is describing burn classifications. The instructor determines that the teaching has been successful when the group identifies what as characteristic of full-thickness burns?

• A. Skin that is reddened, dry, and slightly swollen
• B. Skin appearing wet with significant pain
• C. Skin with blistering and swelling
• D. Skin that is leathery and dry with some numbness

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Full-thickness burns, also known as third-degree burns, are characterized by a leathery, dry appearance with numbness due to nerve damage. This type of burn extends through all layers of the skin, affecting nerve endings. Choice A describes characteristics of superficial partial-thickness burns, which involve the epidermis and part of the dermis. Choice B describes characteristics of superficial burns, or first-degree burns, which only affect the epidermis. Choice C describes characteristics of superficial to mid-dermal burns, also known as second-degree burns, which involve the epidermis and part of the dermis but do not extend through all skin layers. Therefore, the correct answer is D.

2. An additional defect is associated with exstrophy of the bladder. For what anomaly should the nurse assess the infant?

• A. Imperforate anus
• B. Absence of one kidney
• C. Congenital heart disease
• D. Pubic bone malformation

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, pubic bone malformation. Exstrophy of the bladder is commonly associated with pubic bone malformation because the condition involves a defect in the pelvic region. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Imperforate anus, absence of one kidney, and congenital heart disease are not typically associated with exstrophy of the bladder.

3. During the second week of hospitalization for intravenous antibiotic therapy, a 2-year-old toddler whose family is unable to visit often smiles easily, goes to all the nurses happily, and does not express interest in the parent when the parent does visit. The parent tells the nurse, 'I am pleased about the adjustment but somewhat concerned about my child’s reaction to me.' How should the nurse respond?

• A. The child is repressing feelings towards the parent.
• B. Routines have been established, and the child feels safe.
• C. The child has given up fighting and accepts the separation.
• D. Behavior has improved because the child feels better physically.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. The child's behavior of smiling easily, interacting happily with nurses, and showing disinterest in the parent when they visit indicates that the child has emotionally withdrawn and accepted the separation. This response suggests that the child may have given up fighting against the separation from the parent due to prolonged hospitalization. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A about the child repressing feelings towards the parent is not supported by the scenario. Choice B about routines and feeling safe does not address the emotional aspect of the child's behavior. Choice D about improved behavior due to feeling better physically does not explain the emotional dynamics at play in the child's behavior.

4. Why should the nurse closely monitor the IV flow rate for a 5-month-old infant with severe diarrhea receiving IV fluids?

• A. Limiting output
• B. Replacing lost fluids
• C. Avoiding IV infiltration
• D. Preventing cardiac overload

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Preventing cardiac overload. Infants are highly vulnerable to fluid overload, making it essential to carefully monitor IV flow rates to prevent complications such as cardiac overload. Rapid administration of IV fluids can lead to an excessive increase in circulating volume, potentially causing cardiac strain or heart failure in infants. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Monitoring the IV flow rate is not primarily aimed at limiting output, replacing lost fluids, or avoiding IV infiltration in this scenario. The key concern is to prevent the risk of cardiac overload due to the infant's susceptibility to fluid imbalances.

5. A 3-month-old infant has been hospitalized with respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). What is the priority intervention?

• A. Administering an antiviral agent
• B. Clustering care to conserve energy
• C. Offering oral fluids to promote hydration
• D. Providing an antitussive agent when necessary

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority intervention for a 3-month-old infant hospitalized with respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) is clustering care to conserve energy. Infants with RSV often struggle to breathe and require rest periods to recover. Clustering care involves organizing nursing activities to allow for rest intervals, reducing the infant's energy expenditure and aiding recovery. Administering antiviral agents is not the primary intervention for RSV since it is a viral infection, and antiviral medications may not be effective against RSV. While offering oral fluids is crucial for hydration, it may not be the priority when the infant is having respiratory difficulties. Providing an antitussive agent when necessary can help with coughing but is not the priority intervention for managing RSV in this scenario.

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