Nursing Elites

1. During a clinical conference with a group of nursing students, the instructor is describing burn classifications. The instructor determines that the teaching has been successful when the group identifies what as characteristic of full-thickness burns?

• A. Skin that is reddened, dry, and slightly swollen
• B. Skin appearing wet with significant pain
• C. Skin with blistering and swelling
• D. Skin that is leathery and dry with some numbness

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Full-thickness burns, also known as third-degree burns, are characterized by a leathery, dry appearance with numbness due to nerve damage. This type of burn extends through all layers of the skin, affecting nerve endings. Choice A describes characteristics of superficial partial-thickness burns, which involve the epidermis and part of the dermis. Choice B describes characteristics of superficial burns, or first-degree burns, which only affect the epidermis. Choice C describes characteristics of superficial to mid-dermal burns, also known as second-degree burns, which involve the epidermis and part of the dermis but do not extend through all skin layers. Therefore, the correct answer is D.

2. What behavior does the nurse anticipate when feeding a newborn with choanal atresia?

• A. Chokes during feeding
• B. Experiences swallowing challenges
• C. Lacks hunger cues
• D. Takes about half of the feeding

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When feeding a newborn with choanal atresia, the nurse can anticipate that the infant may take only part of the feeding before pausing for air. This is due to the fact that infants with choanal atresia struggle to breathe through their nose while feeding. Choice A is incorrect as choking typically involves a more severe airway obstruction. Choice B is incorrect because difficulty swallowing is not the primary concern in choanal atresia. Choice C is incorrect as the issue is not related to hunger cues but rather the physiological challenges associated with breathing while feeding.

3. A 4-year-old fell from a third-story window and landed on her head. She is semiconscious with slow, irregular breathing and bleeding from her mouth. After performing a jaw-thrust maneuver with simultaneous stabilization of her head, what should you do next?

• A. Suction the oropharynx
• B. Insert a nasopharyngeal airway
• C. Initiate positive pressure ventilations
• D. Administer oxygen via mask

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the patient is experiencing airway compromise due to the fall and potential oropharyngeal obstruction from bleeding. Performing a jaw-thrust maneuver with head stabilization helps maintain the airway patency. The next step should be to suction the oropharynx to clear any blood or secretions, which can obstruct the airway and lead to aspiration. Inserting a nasopharyngeal airway may worsen bleeding or cause further injury to the patient's airway. Initiating positive pressure ventilations can be ineffective if the airway is not cleared first. Administering oxygen via mask is not the immediate priority; ensuring a patent airway by suctioning takes precedence.

4. The parents of a 6-week-old infant who was born without an immune system ask a nurse why their baby is still so healthy. How should the nurse reply?

• A. Exposure to pathogens during this time can be limited.
• B. Some antibodies are produced by the infant’s colonic bacteria.
• C. Antibodies are passively received from the mother through the placenta and breast milk.
• D. Fewer antibodies are produced by the fetal thymus during the eighth and ninth months of gestation.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Infants receive passive immunity through antibodies from the mother during pregnancy and breastfeeding, which protect them initially. Choice A is incorrect because a 6-week-old infant born without an immune system would not be able to limit exposure to pathogens effectively. Choice B is incorrect as antibodies produced by colonic bacteria are not a significant source of immunity in infants. Choice D is incorrect as the fetal thymus primarily plays a role in T cell development rather than antibody production during gestation.

5. A group of students is reviewing information about the various types of insulin used to treat type 1 diabetes. The students demonstrate understanding of the information when they identify which of these insulins as having the longest duration?

• A. Lispro
• B. Regular
• C. NPH
• D. Glargine

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is Glargine (Lantus) as it has the longest duration of action among the insulins listed, lasting 12 to 24 hours. Lispro (A) and Regular (B) are rapid-acting insulins with shorter durations of action. NPH (C) is an intermediate-acting insulin with a duration of action of about 12-16 hours. Therefore, Glargine is the correct choice for the insulin with the longest duration.

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