Nursing Elites

1. During a clinical conference with a group of nursing students, the instructor is describing burn classifications. The instructor determines that the teaching has been successful when the group identifies what as characteristic of full-thickness burns?

• A. Skin that is reddened, dry, and slightly swollen
• B. Skin appearing wet with significant pain
• C. Skin with blistering and swelling
• D. Skin that is leathery and dry with some numbness

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Full-thickness burns, also known as third-degree burns, are characterized by a leathery, dry appearance with numbness due to nerve damage. This type of burn extends through all layers of the skin, affecting nerve endings. Choice A describes characteristics of superficial partial-thickness burns, which involve the epidermis and part of the dermis. Choice B describes characteristics of superficial burns, or first-degree burns, which only affect the epidermis. Choice C describes characteristics of superficial to mid-dermal burns, also known as second-degree burns, which involve the epidermis and part of the dermis but do not extend through all skin layers. Therefore, the correct answer is D.

2. A parent brings a 2-month-old infant with Down syndrome to the pediatric clinic for a physical and administration of immunizations. Which clinical finding should alert the nurse to perform a further assessment?

• A. Flat occiput
• B. Small, low-set ears
• C. Circumoral cyanosis
• D. Protruding furrowed tongue

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Circumoral cyanosis should alert the nurse to perform further assessment in a 2-month-old infant with Down syndrome. This finding may indicate cardiac or respiratory issues, such as inadequate oxygenation. Small, low-set ears and a protruding furrowed tongue are common physical characteristics associated with Down syndrome and may not necessarily warrant immediate further assessment. A flat occiput is a normal variation in infant anatomy and is not typically a cause for immediate concern in this context.

3. The nurse is planning a discussion group for parents with children who have cancer. How would the nurse describe a difference between cancer in children and adults?

• A. Most childhood cancers affect tissues rather than organs.
• B. Childhood cancers are usually localized when found.
• C. Unlike adult cancers, childhood cancers are less responsive to treatment.
• D. The majority of childhood cancers can be prevented.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Most childhood cancers, such as leukemias and sarcomas, affect tissues rather than specific organs, unlike many adult cancers. Choice B is incorrect because childhood cancers may not always be localized when found. Choice C is incorrect as childhood cancers can be responsive to treatment, although treatment approaches may differ from adult cancers. Choice D is incorrect as the majority of childhood cancers cannot be prevented; however, certain risk factors can be managed to reduce the risk of developing cancer.

4. What is the priority nursing responsibility when a 3-year-old child in a crib is experiencing a tonic-clonic seizure with a clamped jaw?

• A. Apply restraints.
• B. Administer oxygen.
• C. Protect the child from self-injury.
• D. Insert a plastic airway in the child’s mouth.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During a tonic-clonic seizure, the priority nursing responsibility is to protect the child from self-injury. Applying restraints (Choice A) can cause harm by restricting movement during the seizure. While administering oxygen (Choice B) may be necessary, it is not the immediate priority during an active seizure. Inserting a plastic airway (Choice D) is contraindicated as it can lead to injury and is not recommended during a seizure. Protecting the child from self-injury (Choice C) is crucial to prevent harm from uncontrolled movements and potential falls, ensuring the safety of the child.

5. A nurse is caring for an infant born with exstrophy of the bladder. What does the nurse determine is the greatest risk for this infant?

• A. Infection
• B. Dehydration
• C. Urinary retention
• D. Intestinal obstruction

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Infection is the greatest risk for an infant with exstrophy of the bladder due to the exposure of the bladder and surrounding tissues. The bladder mucosa and adjacent tissues being exposed increase the susceptibility to infections. Dehydration (Choice B) is not the primary concern in this condition. Urinary retention (Choice C) is less likely as exstrophy of the bladder usually presents with constant dribbling of urine. Intestinal obstruction (Choice D) is not directly related to exstrophy of the bladder.

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