Nursing Elites

1. During a clinical conference with a group of nursing students, the instructor is describing burn classifications. The instructor determines that the teaching has been successful when the group identifies what as characteristic of full-thickness burns?

• A. Skin that is reddened, dry, and slightly swollen
• B. Skin appearing wet with significant pain
• C. Skin with blistering and swelling
• D. Skin that is leathery and dry with some numbness

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Full-thickness burns, also known as third-degree burns, are characterized by a leathery, dry appearance with numbness due to nerve damage. This type of burn extends through all layers of the skin, affecting nerve endings. Choice A describes characteristics of superficial partial-thickness burns, which involve the epidermis and part of the dermis. Choice B describes characteristics of superficial burns, or first-degree burns, which only affect the epidermis. Choice C describes characteristics of superficial to mid-dermal burns, also known as second-degree burns, which involve the epidermis and part of the dermis but do not extend through all skin layers. Therefore, the correct answer is D.

2. A child has been diagnosed with classic hemophilia. A nurse teaches the child’s parents how to administer the plasma component factor VIII through a venous port. It is to be given 3 times a week. What should the nurse tell them about when to administer this therapy?

• A. Whenever a bleed is suspected
• B. In the morning on scheduled days
• C. At bedtime while the child is lying quietly in bed
• D. On a regular schedule at the parents’ convenience

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering factor VIII in the morning on scheduled days ensures that there is a consistent level of the plasma component throughout the day, especially when the child is active. This timing helps to maintain adequate levels of factor VIII to prevent bleeding episodes. Choice A is incorrect because administering factor VIII only when a bleed is suspected would not provide the consistent prophylactic coverage needed for children with hemophilia. Choice C is incorrect as bedtime administration may not be practical for ensuring the plasma component is available during the child's active hours. Choice D is incorrect because administering factor VIII on a regular schedule, rather than at specific times of the day, may not optimize its effectiveness in preventing bleeding episodes.

3. The nurse caring for families in crisis assesses the affective function of an immigrant family consisting of a father, mother, and two school-age children. Based on Friedman's structural functional theory, what defines this family component?

• A. Meeting the love and belonging needs of each member
• B. Teaching children how to function and assume adult roles in society
• C. Ensuring the family has necessary resources with appropriate allocation
• D. Involving the provision of physical care to keep the family healthy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In Friedman's structural functional theory, the affective function of a family involves meeting the love and belonging needs of each member. This includes emotional support, care, and connections that contribute to the overall well-being of the family unit. Choice B is incorrect as it pertains more to the socialization function of the family, where children learn societal roles. Choice C relates to the economic function of the family, ensuring resources are available and allocated appropriately. Choice D focuses on the instrumental function of the family, which involves meeting the physical needs and health of its members.

4. At 0345, you receive a call for a woman in labor. Upon arriving at the scene, you are greeted by a very anxious man who tells you that his wife is having her baby 'now.' This man escorts you into the living room where a 25-year-old woman is lying on the couch in obvious pain. After determining that delivery is not imminent, you begin transport. While en route, the mother tells you that she feels the urge to push. You assess her and see the top of the baby's head bulging from the vagina. What is your most appropriate first action?

• A. allow the head to deliver and check for the location of the cord
• B. advise your partner to stop the ambulance and assist with the delivery
• C. tell the mother to take short, quick breaths until you arrive at the hospital
• D. prepare the mother for an emergency delivery and open the obstetrics kit

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action in this scenario is to advise your partner to stop the ambulance and assist with the delivery. When the mother feels the urge to push and you see the baby's head bulging from the vagina, it indicates an imminent delivery. Stopping the ambulance allows for a safer environment for the delivery of the baby and ensures that immediate assistance can be provided to both the mother and the newborn. Allowing the head to deliver before checking for the cord (Choice A) may delay necessary interventions in case of complications. Instructing the mother to take short, quick breaths (Choice C) is not appropriate when the baby's head is already visible. Preparing for an emergency delivery and opening the obstetrics kit (Choice D) is important but should come after stopping the ambulance and assisting with the imminent birth.

5. What factor predisposes the urinary tract to infection in children?

• A. increased fluid intake
• B. short urethra in young girls
• C. prostatic secretions in males
• D. frequent emptying of the bladder

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The short urethra in young girls predisposes them to urinary tract infections. In young girls, the proximity of the urethra to the anus and the shorter urethra compared to boys make it easier for bacteria to travel up the urinary tract, increasing the risk of infection. Increased fluid intake and frequent emptying of the bladder are actually helpful in preventing urinary tract infections by flushing out bacteria. Prostatic secretions in males are not a factor in predisposing the urinary tract to infection in children.

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