as part of a clinical conference with a group of nursing students the instructor is describing the burn classification the instructor determines that
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Pediatric Practice Exam HESI

1. During a clinical conference with a group of nursing students, the instructor is describing burn classifications. The instructor determines that the teaching has been successful when the group identifies what as characteristic of full-thickness burns?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Full-thickness burns, also known as third-degree burns, are characterized by a leathery, dry appearance with numbness due to nerve damage. This type of burn extends through all layers of the skin, affecting nerve endings. Choice A describes characteristics of superficial partial-thickness burns, which involve the epidermis and part of the dermis. Choice B describes characteristics of superficial burns, or first-degree burns, which only affect the epidermis. Choice C describes characteristics of superficial to mid-dermal burns, also known as second-degree burns, which involve the epidermis and part of the dermis but do not extend through all skin layers. Therefore, the correct answer is D.

2. The nurse is assessing a 13-year-old boy with type 2 diabetes mellitus. What symptom would the nurse correlate with the disorder?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. In type 2 diabetes mellitus, excessive thirst (polydipsia) is a common symptom due to high blood glucose levels. This results in the patient feeling unable to drink enough water to satisfy their thirst. The other options are incorrect because a recent 'cold or flu' (choice A) is not directly related to diabetes mellitus, decreased blood pressure (choice B) is not a typical finding in uncontrolled diabetes, and Kussmaul breathing (choice D) is associated with diabetic ketoacidosis, which is more common in type 1 diabetes mellitus.

3. A nurse is evaluating a 3-year-old child’s developmental progress. The inability to perform which task indicates to the nurse that there is a developmental delay?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The inability to copy a square at 3 years old indicates a potential developmental delay in fine motor skills. At this age, children should be able to copy basic shapes like circles and crosses. Hopping on one foot is typically expected around the age of 4, catching a ball reliably around 5, and using a spoon effectively by 2-3 years old. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are not as indicative of a developmental delay at 3 years old as the inability to copy a square.

4. A nurse is caring for an infant born with exstrophy of the bladder. What does the nurse determine is the greatest risk for this infant?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Infection is the greatest risk for an infant with exstrophy of the bladder due to the exposure of the bladder and surrounding tissues. The bladder mucosa and adjacent tissues being exposed increase the susceptibility to infections. Dehydration (Choice B) is not the primary concern in this condition. Urinary retention (Choice C) is less likely as exstrophy of the bladder usually presents with constant dribbling of urine. Intestinal obstruction (Choice D) is not directly related to exstrophy of the bladder.

5. A nurse is assessing the oral cavity of a 6-month-old infant. The parent asks which teeth will erupt first. How should the nurse respond?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Incisors. In infants, incisors are usually the first teeth to erupt, typically around 6 months of age. These are the front teeth used for cutting food. Canines (Choice B), upper molars (Choice C), and lower molars (Choice D) typically erupt after the incisors. Canines are sharp teeth used for tearing food, while molars are flat teeth used for grinding food.

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