Nursing Elites

1. During a clinical conference with a group of nursing students, the instructor is describing burn classifications. The instructor determines that the teaching has been successful when the group identifies what as characteristic of full-thickness burns?

• A. Skin that is reddened, dry, and slightly swollen
• B. Skin appearing wet with significant pain
• C. Skin with blistering and swelling
• D. Skin that is leathery and dry with some numbness

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Full-thickness burns, also known as third-degree burns, are characterized by a leathery, dry appearance with numbness due to nerve damage. This type of burn extends through all layers of the skin, affecting nerve endings. Choice A describes characteristics of superficial partial-thickness burns, which involve the epidermis and part of the dermis. Choice B describes characteristics of superficial burns, or first-degree burns, which only affect the epidermis. Choice C describes characteristics of superficial to mid-dermal burns, also known as second-degree burns, which involve the epidermis and part of the dermis but do not extend through all skin layers. Therefore, the correct answer is D.

2. The nurse is assessing a 13-year-old boy with type 2 diabetes mellitus. What symptom would the nurse correlate with the disorder?

• A. The parents report that their child had a recent 'cold or flu.'
• B. Blood pressure is decreased during vital signs assessment.
• C. The parents report that their son 'can’t drink enough water.'
• D. Auscultation reveals Kussmaul breathing.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. In type 2 diabetes mellitus, excessive thirst (polydipsia) is a common symptom due to high blood glucose levels. This results in the patient feeling unable to drink enough water to satisfy their thirst. The other options are incorrect because a recent 'cold or flu' (choice A) is not directly related to diabetes mellitus, decreased blood pressure (choice B) is not a typical finding in uncontrolled diabetes, and Kussmaul breathing (choice D) is associated with diabetic ketoacidosis, which is more common in type 1 diabetes mellitus.

3. A nurse is teaching a class about immunizations to members of a grammar school’s Parent-Teachers Association. Which childhood disease is the nurse discussing when explaining that it is a viral disease that starts with malaise and a highly pruritic rash that begins on the abdomen, spreads to the face and proximal extremities, and can result in grave complications?

• A. Rubella
• B. Rubeola
• C. Chickenpox
• D. Scarlet fever

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Chickenpox (varicella). Chickenpox is a viral disease characterized by a highly pruritic rash that typically starts on the abdomen and then spreads to other parts of the body, including the face and proximal extremities. It can lead to complications such as pneumonia and encephalitis. Rubella (German measles) presents with a mild rash and swollen lymph nodes; Rubeola (measles) also presents with a rash but starts on the face before spreading downwards; Scarlet fever is caused by Group A Streptococcus bacteria and is characterized by a rash, fever, and sore throat.

4. Which is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis for the child with acute glomerulonephritis?

• A. Risk for injury related to malignant process and treatment
• B. Fluid volume deficit related to excessive losses
• C. Fluid volume excess related to decreased plasma filtration
• D. Fluid volume excess related to fluid accumulation in tissues and third spaces

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most appropriate nursing diagnosis for a child with acute glomerulonephritis is fluid volume excess related to decreased plasma filtration. Acute glomerulonephritis is characterized by inflammation of the glomeruli in the kidneys, leading to decreased plasma filtration and retention of fluid. This results in fluid volume excess rather than fluid deficit (choice B) or fluid accumulation in tissues and third spaces (choice D). The diagnosis of 'risk for injury related to malignant process and treatment' (choice A) is not directly related to the pathophysiology of acute glomerulonephritis.

5. A 12-month-old infant has become immunosuppressed during a course of chemotherapy. When preparing the parents for the infant’s discharge, what information should the nurse give concerning the measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) immunization?

• A. It should not be given until the infant reaches 2 years of age.
• B. Infants who are receiving chemotherapy should not be given these vaccines.
• C. It should be given to protect the infant from contracting any of these diseases.
• D. The parents should discuss this with their health care provider at the next visit.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Live vaccines like MMR should not be given to immunosuppressed infants because their weakened immune systems may not handle the vaccine safely. Choice A is incorrect as delaying the MMR vaccine until the infant reaches 2 years of age does not address the issue of immunosuppression. Choice C is incorrect because administering live vaccines to an immunosuppressed individual could lead to serious complications. Choice D is incorrect as immediate action is required to prevent potential harm to the immunosuppressed infant.

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