Nursing Elites

1. During a clinical conference with a group of nursing students, the instructor is describing burn classifications. The instructor determines that the teaching has been successful when the group identifies what as characteristic of full-thickness burns?

• A. Skin that is reddened, dry, and slightly swollen
• B. Skin appearing wet with significant pain
• C. Skin with blistering and swelling
• D. Skin that is leathery and dry with some numbness

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Full-thickness burns, also known as third-degree burns, are characterized by a leathery, dry appearance with numbness due to nerve damage. This type of burn extends through all layers of the skin, affecting nerve endings. Choice A describes characteristics of superficial partial-thickness burns, which involve the epidermis and part of the dermis. Choice B describes characteristics of superficial burns, or first-degree burns, which only affect the epidermis. Choice C describes characteristics of superficial to mid-dermal burns, also known as second-degree burns, which involve the epidermis and part of the dermis but do not extend through all skin layers. Therefore, the correct answer is D.

2. What is an early sign of congestive heart failure that the nurse should recognize?

• A. tachypnea
• B. bradycardia
• C. inability to sweat
• D. increased urinary output

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Tachypnea is an early sign of congestive heart failure that nurses should recognize. Tachypnea refers to rapid breathing, which can be an indication of the body's attempt to compensate for decreased cardiac output in congestive heart failure. Bradycardia (choice B) is a slow heart rate and is not typically associated with congestive heart failure. Inability to sweat (choice C) and increased urinary output (choice D) are not specific early signs of congestive heart failure and are not typically recognized as such.

3. At 2 years of age, a child is readmitted to the hospital for additional surgery. What is the most important factor in preparing the toddler for this experience?

• A. Meeting the child’s wishes
• B. Previous hospitalization experience
• C. Preventing the child from staying with strangers
• D. Ensuring ongoing parental affection

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important factor in preparing a toddler for additional surgery is their previous hospitalization experience. This familiarity with the hospital setting and procedures can help reduce anxiety and fear in the child. Choice A, meeting the child's wishes, may not always align with what is medically necessary or safe for the child. Choice C, preventing the child from staying with strangers, is important for general comfort but may not directly address the child's preparation for surgery. Choice D, ensuring ongoing parental affection, is crucial for emotional support but may not have the same impact as the child's previous hospitalization experience in preparing them for the surgery.

4. When developing the plan of care for a child with cerebral palsy, which treatment would the nurse expect as least likely?

• A. Skeletal traction
• B. Physical therapy
• C. Orthotics
• D. Occupational therapy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In caring for a child with cerebral palsy, skeletal traction is least likely to be a part of the treatment plan. Cerebral palsy is a neurological disorder affecting movement and muscle coordination, and skeletal traction, which involves applying a pulling force on a bone to correct alignment, is not a common intervention for this condition. Physical therapy, orthotics, and occupational therapy are more commonly used in the management of cerebral palsy. Physical therapy helps improve mobility and strength, orthotics assist in supporting and aligning the body, and occupational therapy focuses on enhancing daily living skills and independence. Therefore, skeletal traction is the least likely treatment option among the choices provided.

5. A healthcare professional is preparing a presentation for a parent group about musculoskeletal injuries. When describing a child's risk for this type of injury, the professional integrates knowledge that bone growth occurs primarily in which area?

• A. Growth plate.
• B. Epiphysis.
• C. Physis.
• D. Metaphysis.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Bone growth primarily occurs in the epiphysis, which is the area where growth plates are located. The epiphysis is responsible for longitudinal bone growth. The growth plate, also known as the physis, is the cartilaginous region in the metaphysis where bone growth occurs. The metaphysis is the area between the epiphysis and diaphysis where bone lengthening occurs, but it is not the primary site of bone growth. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect.

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