Nursing Elites

1. During a clinical conference with a group of nursing students, the instructor is describing burn classifications. The instructor determines that the teaching has been successful when the group identifies what as characteristic of full-thickness burns?

• A. Skin that is reddened, dry, and slightly swollen
• B. Skin appearing wet with significant pain
• C. Skin with blistering and swelling
• D. Skin that is leathery and dry with some numbness

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Full-thickness burns, also known as third-degree burns, are characterized by a leathery, dry appearance with numbness due to nerve damage. This type of burn extends through all layers of the skin, affecting nerve endings. Choice A describes characteristics of superficial partial-thickness burns, which involve the epidermis and part of the dermis. Choice B describes characteristics of superficial burns, or first-degree burns, which only affect the epidermis. Choice C describes characteristics of superficial to mid-dermal burns, also known as second-degree burns, which involve the epidermis and part of the dermis but do not extend through all skin layers. Therefore, the correct answer is D.

2. The nurse is caring for a child who has been admitted for a sickle cell crisis. What would the nurse do first to provide adequate pain management?

• A. Administer a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) as ordered.
• B. Use guided imagery and therapeutic touch.
• C. Administer meperidine as ordered.
• D. Initiate pain assessment with a standardized pain scale.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Initiating pain assessment with a standardized pain scale is crucial in effectively managing pain during a sickle cell crisis. This initial step helps the nurse understand the severity of the pain, which guides subsequent interventions. Administering medications, such as NSAIDs or meperidine, should only be done after a thorough pain assessment to ensure appropriate and individualized treatment. Using guided imagery and therapeutic touch may be beneficial as adjunct interventions, but they should not replace the essential first step of assessing the pain level accurately.

3. A 12-month-old infant has become immunosuppressed during a course of chemotherapy. When preparing the parents for the infant’s discharge, what information should the nurse give concerning the measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) immunization?

• A. It should not be given until the infant reaches 2 years of age.
• B. Infants who are receiving chemotherapy should not be given these vaccines.
• C. It should be given to protect the infant from contracting any of these diseases.
• D. The parents should discuss this with their health care provider at the next visit.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Live vaccines like MMR should not be given to immunosuppressed infants because their weakened immune systems may not handle the vaccine safely. Choice A is incorrect as delaying the MMR vaccine until the infant reaches 2 years of age does not address the issue of immunosuppression. Choice C is incorrect because administering live vaccines to an immunosuppressed individual could lead to serious complications. Choice D is incorrect as immediate action is required to prevent potential harm to the immunosuppressed infant.

4. A 4-year-old child is admitted with a diagnosis of bacterial pneumonia. What is the priority nursing intervention?

• A. Administering antipyretics
• B. Administering antibiotics
• C. Monitoring fluid intake
• D. Providing nutritional support

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority nursing intervention in a 4-year-old child admitted with bacterial pneumonia is administering antibiotics. Antibiotics are crucial for treating the infection and preventing potential complications. Administering antipyretics (Choice A) may help reduce fever, but addressing the underlying infection with antibiotics is the priority. Monitoring fluid intake (Choice C) is important for hydration but does not take precedence over administering antibiotics. Providing nutritional support (Choice D) is essential for overall care but is not the immediate priority when managing bacterial pneumonia.

5. A nurse is evaluating a 3-year-old child’s developmental progress. The inability to perform which task indicates to the nurse that there is a developmental delay?

• A. Copying a square
• B. Hopping on one foot
• C. Catching a ball reliably
• D. Using a spoon effectively

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Copying a square. At 3 years old, children should be able to copy a square as part of their fine motor skill development. The inability to perform this task may indicate a developmental delay in fine motor skills. Choice B, hopping on one foot, typically develops around 4-5 years of age, so it is not a reliable indicator of a delay at 3. Choice C, catching a ball reliably, involves coordination skills that develop later in childhood, making it less relevant for a 3-year-old assessment. Choice D, using a spoon effectively, is more related to self-care and feeding skills rather than fine motor development, so it is not the best indicator of a developmental delay in this context.

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