HESI LPN
Pediatric Practice Exam HESI
1. During a clinical conference with a group of nursing students, the instructor is describing burn classifications. The instructor determines that the teaching has been successful when the group identifies what as characteristic of full-thickness burns?
- A. Skin that is reddened, dry, and slightly swollen
- B. Skin appearing wet with significant pain
- C. Skin with blistering and swelling
- D. Skin that is leathery and dry with some numbness
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Full-thickness burns, also known as third-degree burns, are characterized by a leathery, dry appearance with numbness due to nerve damage. This type of burn extends through all layers of the skin, affecting nerve endings. Choice A describes characteristics of superficial partial-thickness burns, which involve the epidermis and part of the dermis. Choice B describes characteristics of superficial burns, or first-degree burns, which only affect the epidermis. Choice C describes characteristics of superficial to mid-dermal burns, also known as second-degree burns, which involve the epidermis and part of the dermis but do not extend through all skin layers. Therefore, the correct answer is D.
2. A client with hypertension is prescribed amlodipine. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?
- A. Peripheral edema
- B. Bradycardia
- C. Hypertension
- D. Increased appetite
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Amlodipine is known to cause peripheral edema as a potential adverse effect due to its vasodilatory properties. This can lead to fluid accumulation in the extremities. Monitoring for peripheral edema in patients taking amlodipine is crucial to identify and manage this side effect promptly. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because amlodipine is not associated with causing bradycardia, hypertension (as the patient already has hypertension), or increased appetite as adverse effects.
3. Prior to a client being transported for a chest x-ray, what should a healthcare professional do first?
- A. Identify the client using two identifiers
- B. Confirm the client's fasting status
- C. Check the client's allergies to contrast media
- D. Explain the procedure to the client
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Identifying the client using two identifiers is the crucial first step to ensure correct patient identification before any procedure. This process helps prevent errors and ensures that the right procedure is performed on the right patient. Confirming the client's identity is the top priority before addressing other aspects such as fasting status, allergies, or explaining the procedure. While confirming fasting status and checking for allergies are important, they are secondary to confirming the client's identity. Explaining the procedure to the client is also essential but should occur after ensuring proper identification.
4. A 4-year-old with acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL) is receiving a chemotherapy protocol that includes methotrexate, an antimetabolite. Which information should the nurse provide the parents about caring for their child?
- A. Use sunblock or protective clothing when outdoors.
- B. Include the child in regular outings with the family.
- C. Obtain any childhood vaccinations that are not up-to-date.
- D. Use diluted commercial mouthwash for mouth care.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to use sunblock or protective clothing when outdoors. Methotrexate can cause photosensitivity, making the child more prone to sunburns and skin damage. Therefore, advising the parents to protect their child's skin from direct sunlight exposure is crucial. Choice B is incorrect because exposing the child to direct sunlight without protection can worsen the photosensitivity caused by methotrexate. Choice C is incorrect as obtaining vaccinations is generally avoided during chemotherapy due to the child's compromised immune system. Choice D is incorrect as commercial mouthwash may contain alcohol, which can be irritating to the child's oral mucosa, especially during chemotherapy.
5. A healthcare professional working in the emergency department is witnessing the signing of informed consent forms for the treatment of multiple clients during their shift. Which of the following signatures may the healthcare professional legally witness?
- A. A 16-year-old client who is married
- B. A 27-year-old who has schizophrenia
- C. An adoptive parent who brings in their 8-year-old child
- D. A 17-year-old mother who brings in her toddler
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. A 16-year-old who is married can legally sign an informed consent form. In this case, being married at 16 may indicate legal emancipation or the ability to consent to medical treatment. Choice B is incorrect because having schizophrenia doesn't automatically imply incapacity to provide informed consent. Choice C is incorrect as an adoptive parent does not have the legal authority to provide consent for medical treatment on behalf of a child without proper documentation. Choice D is incorrect as a 17-year-old mother would generally not have the legal capacity to give consent for her toddler, as parental consent is usually required for minors.