Nursing Elites

1. An 18-month-old was brought to the emergency department by her mother, who states, 'I think she broke her arm.' The child is sent for a radiograph to confirm the fracture. Additional assessment of the child leads the nurse to suspect possible child abuse. Which type of fracture would the radiograph most likely reveal?

• A. Plastic deformity.
• B. Buckle fracture.
• C. Spiral fracture.
• D. Greenstick fracture.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A spiral fracture is characterized by a twisting injury, often indicating child abuse due to the mechanism involved. This type of fracture is commonly seen in non-accidental trauma cases. Plastic deformity is not typically seen on radiographs but refers to a change in the shape of a bone without breaking. Buckle fractures are incomplete fractures commonly seen in children due to their softer bones. Greenstick fractures are also incomplete fractures, but they do not typically raise suspicion of child abuse as spiral fractures do.

2. An infant with a congenital heart defect is being given gavage feedings. The parents ask the nurse why this is necessary. How should the nurse respond?

• A. It limits the chance of vomiting.
• B. It allows the feeding to be administered rapidly.
• C. The energy that would have been expended on sucking is conserved.
• D. The quantity of nutritional liquid can be regulated better than with a bottle.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'The energy that would have been expended on sucking is conserved.' Gavage feedings are necessary for infants with congenital heart defects as they help conserve the infant’s energy by eliminating the need for sucking, which can be taxing for infants with cardiac issues. Choice A is incorrect because gavage feedings are not primarily used to limit vomiting. Choice B is incorrect as the speed of administration is not the main reason for gavage feedings in this case. Choice D is incorrect because the regulation of the quantity of nutritional liquid is not the primary rationale for gavage feedings in infants with congenital heart defects.

3. When a parent tells a nurse at the clinic, 'Each morning I offer my 24-month-old child juice, and all I hear is ‘No.’ What should I do because I know my child needs fluid?' What strategy should the nurse suggest?

• A. Offer the child a choice of two juices.
• B. Distract the child with a favorite food.
• C. Offer the child the glass in a firm manner.
• D. Allow the child to see the parent getting angry.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should suggest offering the child a choice of two juices. Giving the child a choice between two options empowers them to make a decision, fostering a sense of control, and increasing the likelihood of cooperation. This approach respects the child's autonomy while addressing the parent's concern about the child's fluid intake. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because distracting the child, offering the glass in a firm manner, or displaying anger are not effective strategies for encouraging a 24-month-old child to drink juice.

4. An infant is admitted to the neonatal intensive care unit (NICU) with exstrophy of the bladder. What covering should the nurse use to protect the exposed area?

• A. Loose diaper
• B. Dry gauze dressing
• C. Moist sterile dressing
• D. Petroleum jelly gauze pad

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A moist sterile dressing should be used to protect the exposed bladder tissue from infection and injury. Exstrophy of the bladder requires careful management to prevent complications such as infection. A loose diaper (Choice A) may not provide adequate protection or prevent infection. Dry gauze dressing (Choice B) may not be ideal as it could adhere to the exposed area and cause trauma upon removal. Petroleum jelly gauze pad (Choice D) may not be suitable as it can trap moisture and increase the risk of infection.

5. The nurse is reviewing the laboratory test results of a child diagnosed with disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). What would the nurse interpret as indicative of this disorder?

• A. Shortened prothrombin time
• B. Increased fibrinogen level
• C. Positive fibrin split products
• D. Increased platelets

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Positive fibrin split products are indicative of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). In DIC, there is widespread clotting and subsequent consumption of clotting factors, leading to the formation of fibrin split products. A shortened prothrombin time (Choice A) is not typically seen in DIC as it indicates faster clotting, which is opposite to the pathophysiology of DIC. An increased fibrinogen level (Choice B) may be observed in the early stages of DIC due to the compensatory increase in production, but it is not a definitive indicator. Increased platelets (Choice D) may be seen in the early stages of DIC due to the body's attempt to compensate for clot formation, but it is not a specific finding for DIC.

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