Nursing Elites

1. What explanation should the nurse provide to the parents of a 6-month-old infant diagnosed with cystic fibrosis?

• A. It is a condition affecting the respiratory and digestive systems.
• B. It is an autoimmune disorder affecting multiple organs.
• C. It is a genetic disorder that can be managed with medication.
• D. It is a condition caused by prenatal exposure to toxins.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder that primarily affects the respiratory and digestive systems. It results in the production of thick, sticky mucus that can clog the lungs and obstruct the pancreas. This explanation is crucial for parents to understand the impact of the condition on their child's health. Choice B is incorrect because cystic fibrosis is not an autoimmune disorder. Choice C is partially correct in that cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder, but it requires a comprehensive management approach beyond just medication. Choice D is incorrect as cystic fibrosis is not caused by prenatal exposure to toxins but rather by inheriting specific genetic mutations.

2. A parent arrives in the emergency clinic with a 3-month-old baby who says, “My baby stopped breathing for a while.” The infant continues to have difficulty breathing, with prolonged periods of apnea. Which assessment data should alert the nurse to suspect shaken baby syndrome (SBS)?

• A. Birth occurred before 32 weeks’ gestation
• B. Lack of stridor and adventitious breath sounds
• C. Previous episodes of apnea lasting 10 to 15 seconds
• D. Retractions and use of accessory respiratory muscles

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Retractions and the use of accessory respiratory muscles can be signs of respiratory distress, which may indicate trauma such as shaken baby syndrome (SBS). Shaken baby syndrome can result in brain injury and respiratory compromise, leading to breathing difficulties. Choices A, B, and C are less likely to be associated with SBS. Birth before 32 weeks’ gestation is more related to prematurity rather than SBS. The lack of stridor and adventitious breath sounds, as well as previous episodes of apnea lasting 10 to 15 seconds, are not specific indicators of SBS.

3. The nurse is assessing a 4-year-old client. Which finding suggests to the nurse this child may have a genetic disorder?

• A. The inquiry determines the child had feeding problems.
• B. The child weighs 40 lb (18.2 kg) and is 40 in (101.6 cm) in height.
• C. The child has low-set ears with lobe creases.
• D. The child can hop on one foot but cannot skip.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Low-set ears with lobe creases are often associated with genetic disorders, such as Down syndrome, and can indicate underlying chromosomal abnormalities. This physical characteristic is a common feature seen in various genetic syndromes. The other choices, including feeding problems, weight and height measurements, and motor skills, are not typically specific indicators of genetic disorders in the absence of other associated features.

4. A child with a diagnosis of celiac disease is being discharged. What dietary instructions should the nurse provide?

• A. Avoid dairy products
• B. Avoid gluten
• C. Avoid high-fat foods
• D. Avoid foods high in sugar

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to 'Avoid gluten.' Celiac disease is an autoimmune disorder triggered by gluten consumption, a protein found in wheat, barley, and rye. By avoiding gluten-containing foods, individuals with celiac disease can prevent damage to their small intestine and manage their symptoms effectively. Choice A, 'Avoid dairy products,' is incorrect as dairy is not directly related to celiac disease. Choice C, 'Avoid high-fat foods,' and Choice D, 'Avoid foods high in sugar,' are incorrect as they are not primary dietary concerns in managing celiac disease. The main focus should be on eliminating gluten sources from the diet.

5. A parent of an 11-month-old infant who has a cleft palate asks the nurse why it was recommended that closure of the palate should be done before the age of 2. How should the nurse respond?

• A. “After age 2, surgery is frightening and should be avoided if possible.”
• B. “Eruption of the 2-year molars often complicates the surgical procedure.”
• C. “As your child gets older, the palate gets wider and more difficult to repair.”
• D. “Surgery should be performed before your child starts to use faulty speech patterns.”

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Closure of the cleft palate is recommended before the age of 2 to prevent the development of faulty speech patterns. Performing surgery at a younger age helps avoid speech difficulties that may arise if the repair is delayed. Choice A is incorrect as it focuses on fear, not the developmental aspect. Choice B is incorrect as the eruption of molars is not the primary reason for early surgery. Choice C is incorrect because the difficulty of repair is not solely related to the width of the palate but also to speech development.

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