HESI LPN
HESI CAT Exam 2024
1. In what order should the unit manager implement interventions to address the UAP’s behavior after they leave the unit without notifying the staff?
- A. Note date and time of the behavior.
- B. Discuss the issue privately with the UAP.
- C. Plan for scheduled break times.
- D. Evaluate the UAP for signs of improvement.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct order for the unit manager to implement interventions to address the UAP's behavior is to first note the date and time of the behavior. Proper documentation is crucial as it provides a factual record of the incident. This documentation can be used to address the behavior effectively and to track any patterns or improvements in the future. Discussing the issue with the UAP privately (choice B) should come after documenting the behavior. Planning for scheduled break times (choice C) is unrelated to the situation described and does not address the UAP's behavior of leaving without notifying the staff. Evaluating the UAP for signs of improvement (choice D) can only be done effectively after the behavior has been addressed and interventions have been implemented.
2. An angry client screams at the emergency department triage nurse, “I’ve been waiting here for two hours! You and the staff are incompetentâ€. What is the best response for the nurse to make?
- A. The emergency department is very busy at this time.
- B. I’ll let you see the doctor next because you’ve waited so long.
- C. I’m doing the best I can for the sickest clients first.
- D. I understand you are frustrated with the wait time.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Correct Answer: The best response for the nurse is to choose option D, 'I understand you are frustrated with the wait time.' This response demonstrates empathy and validates the client's feelings, helping to defuse the situation. Choice A is not the best response as it does not directly address the client's emotions or concerns. Choice B is inappropriate as it gives preferential treatment based on the client's behavior. Choice C, while true, does not acknowledge the client's frustration or offer empathy.
3. A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted to the hospital. The client is experiencing difficulty breathing and is very anxious. The nurse notes that the client’s oxygen saturation is 88% on room air. Which action should the nurse implement first?
- A. Place the client in a high Fowler’s position
- B. Administer supplemental oxygen
- C. Perform a thorough respiratory assessment
- D. Start an IV infusion of normal saline
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Administering supplemental oxygen is the first priority to address low oxygen saturation and ease breathing. In a client with COPD experiencing difficulty breathing and anxiety with oxygen saturation at 88%, providing supplemental oxygen takes precedence over other actions. Placing the client in a high Fowler’s position may help with breathing but does not address the immediate need for increased oxygenation. Performing a thorough respiratory assessment is important but should come after stabilizing the client's oxygen levels. Starting an IV infusion of normal saline is not the priority in this situation and does not directly address the client's respiratory distress.
4. A male client with hypertension, who received new antihypertensive prescriptions at his last visit returns to the clinic two weeks later to evaluate his blood pressure (BP). His BP is 158/106 mmHg and he admits that he has not been taking the prescribed medication because the drugs make him feel bad. In explaining the need for hypertension control, the nurse should stress that an elevated BP places the client at risk for which pathophysiological condition?
- A. Stroke secondary to hemorrhage
- B. Acute kidney injury due to glomerular damage
- C. Heart block due to myocardial damage
- D. Blindness secondary to cataracts
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Stroke secondary to hemorrhage. Hypertension increases the risk of stroke due to the stress and damage it causes to blood vessels, which can lead to hemorrhage. Choice B is incorrect because acute kidney injury is more commonly associated with chronic uncontrolled hypertension, not acute elevations. Choice C is incorrect as heart block is not a direct consequence of hypertension. Choice D is incorrect as hypertension does not directly cause cataracts leading to blindness.
5. For a client with pneumonia, the prescription states, “Oxygen at liters/min per nasal cannula PRN difficult breathing.†Which nursing intervention is effective in preventing oxygen toxicity?
- A. Avoiding the administration of oxygen at high levels for extended periods.
- B. Administering a sedative at bedtime to slow the client’s respiratory rate.
- C. Removing the nasal cannula during the night to prevent oxygen buildup.
- D. Running oxygen through a hydration source prior to administration.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Choice A is the correct answer because prolonged exposure to high levels of oxygen can lead to oxygen toxicity. Administering oxygen at high levels for extended periods can overwhelm the body's natural defenses against high oxygen levels, causing toxicity. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B is unrelated to preventing oxygen toxicity. Choice C is unsafe as removing the nasal cannula can deprive the client of necessary oxygen. Choice D, running oxygen through a hydration source, is not a standard practice for preventing oxygen toxicity.
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