Nursing Elites

1. An older male resident of a long-term care facility has been scratching his legs for the past 2 days. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Explain the importance of bathing or showering daily
• B. Encourage fluid intake of at least 2,000 ml daily
• C. Keep the legs covered as much as possible
• D. Apply emollient to the affected area at least twice daily

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention for the nurse to implement in this scenario is to apply emollient to the affected area at least twice daily. This is because applying emollients helps address dry skin, which is a common cause of itching in older adults. Explaining the importance of bathing or showering daily (Choice A) may be helpful for general hygiene but may not specifically address the itching. Encouraging fluid intake (Choice B) and keeping the legs covered (Choice C) are not directly related to addressing the itching caused by dry skin.

2. A male client reports the onset of numbness and tingling in his fingers and around his mouth. Which lab value is important for the nurse to review before contacting the health care provider?

• A. capillary glucose
• B. urine specific gravity
• C. Serum calcium
• D. white blood cell count

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum calcium. Numbness and tingling can be indicative of hypocalcemia, which can affect the nervous system. Reviewing serum calcium levels is crucial to address this potential issue. Options A, B, and D are not directly related to the symptoms described by the client and are not typically associated with numbness and tingling around the mouth and fingers. Capillary glucose levels are more relevant in assessing for diabetes or monitoring glucose control. Urine specific gravity is useful in evaluating hydration status. White blood cell count is typically checked to assess infection or immune response, which are not indicated by the client's symptoms of numbness and tingling.

3. A client with leukemia who is receiving myelosuppressive chemotherapy has a platelet count of 25,000/mm3. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in this client’s plan of care?

• A. Monitor for signs of activity intolerance
• B. Require visitors to wear respiratory masks
• C. Assess urine and stool for occult blood
• D. Obtain client’s temperature q4 hours

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess urine and stool for occult blood. With a low platelet count, there is an increased risk of bleeding. Monitoring for occult blood is essential to detect any signs of internal bleeding. Choices A, B, and D are not the priority interventions in this situation. While monitoring for signs of activity intolerance, requiring visitors to wear respiratory masks, and obtaining the client's temperature are important aspects of care, they are not as critical as assessing for occult blood in a client with a low platelet count.

4. A client who had an intraosseous (IO) cannula placed by the healthcare provider for emergent fluid resuscitation is complaining of severe pain and numbness below the IO site. The skin around the site is pale and edematous. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Discontinue the IO infusion
• B. Administer an analgesic via the IO site
• C. Elevate the extremity with the IO site
• D. Notify the healthcare provider

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first is to discontinue the IO infusion. The client's symptoms of severe pain, numbness, pale skin, and edema below the IO site suggest a complication, such as extravasation or compartment syndrome. By discontinuing the infusion, further harm can be prevented. Administering an analgesic via the IO site or elevating the extremity would not address the underlying issue and could potentially worsen the condition. Notifying the healthcare provider can be done after stopping the infusion to seek further guidance or intervention.

5. When preparing to discharge a male client who has been hospitalized for an adrenal crisis, the client expresses concern about having another crisis. He tells the nurse that he wants to stay in the hospital a few more days. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Administer antianxiety medication before providing discharge instructions
• B. Schedule a follow-up appointment for an outpatient psychosocial assessment
• C. Obtain a blood cortisol level before discharge
• D. Encourage the client to remain in the hospital for a few more days

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention is to schedule a follow-up appointment for an outpatient psychosocial assessment. This option addresses the client's concerns and provides support for managing stress and preventing future crises, which is crucial for the client's long-term care. Administering antianxiety medication before providing discharge instructions (Choice A) may not effectively address the underlying concerns. Obtaining a blood cortisol level before discharge (Choice C) is important but not the priority in this situation. Encouraging the client to remain in the hospital for a few more days (Choice D) is not the best course of action as it may not address the client's anxiety and could potentially lead to other issues.

Similar Questions