Nursing Elites

1. A new mother asks the nurse if the newborn infant has an infection because the healthcare provider prescribed a blood test called the TORCH screen test. Which response should the nurse offer to the mother's inquiry?

• A. Rising titers identify the etiology of certain neuro-sensory birth defects
• B. The screen determines the risk for inherited anomalies in the newborn
• C. The test identifies the correct antibiotic to give the newborn for an infection
• D. Exposure to infections that can cross the placenta cause a positive antibody titer

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The TORCH screen test is used to detect infections that can affect the newborn by showing if there was exposure to these infections. Choice A is incorrect because the TORCH screen test is not specifically for identifying the etiology of neuro-sensory birth defects. Choice B is incorrect because the test does not determine the risk for inherited anomalies. Choice C is incorrect because the test is not used to identify the correct antibiotic for an infection, but rather to detect infections that may have affected the newborn.

2. When washing soiled hands, what should the nurse do after wetting the hands and applying soap?

• A. Rub hands palm to palm
• B. Interlace the fingers
• C. Dry hands with a paper towel
• D. Turn off the water faucet

Correct answer: A

Rationale: After wetting the hands and applying soap, the nurse should rub hands palm to palm. Rubbing hands palm to palm helps create friction and effectively clean the hands by spreading the soap and reaching all areas. Interlacing the fingers, drying hands with a paper towel, and turning off the water faucet should come after rubbing hands palm to palm in the handwashing process. Interlacing the fingers can be done to ensure the backs of the hands are cleaned, drying hands with a paper towel is the final step to ensure hands are dry, and turning off the water faucet helps save water.

3. When entering a client’s room to administer an 0900 IV antibiotic, the nurse finds that the client is engaged in sexual activity with a visitor. Which actions should the nurse implement?

• A. Ignore the behavior and administer the IV antibiotic
• B. Tell the client to stop the inappropriate behavior
• C. Leave the room and close the door quietly
• D. Complete an unusual occurrence report

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse in this situation is to leave the room and close the door quietly. This response respects the client's privacy, maintains professionalism, and avoids interrupting the client's personal moment. Choice A is incorrect because ignoring the behavior is not appropriate and may invade the client's privacy further. Choice B is incorrect as it can embarrass the client and the visitor, breaching their privacy and dignity. Choice D is also incorrect as the immediate priority is to respect the client's privacy and address the situation discreetly.

4. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is admitted for frequent hyperglycemic episodes and a glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c) of 10%. Insulin glargine 10 units subcutaneously once a day at bedtime and a sliding scale with insulin aspart q6h are prescribed. What action should the nurse include in this client’s plan of care?

• A. Perform fingerstick glucose assessment q6h with meals
• B. Mix bedtime dose of insulin glargine with insulin aspart sliding scale dose
• C. Review proper foot care and prevention of injury with the client
• D. Avoid contaminating the insulin aspart for IV use

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Performing fingerstick glucose assessments q6h with meals is essential in monitoring the client's blood glucose levels closely, especially when managing hyperglycemic episodes and adjusting insulin doses with a sliding scale. This action helps in determining the effectiveness of the prescribed insulin regimen. Reviewing proper foot care and preventing injury is important for long-term diabetic management but not the immediate priority in this scenario. Mixing insulin glargine with insulin aspart is not recommended, as they are different types of insulin with distinct mechanisms of action. Ensuring the availability of insulin aspart for IV use is not relevant to the client's current care plan.

5. When lactulose (Cephulac) 30 ml QID is prescribed for a male client with advanced cirrhosis, and he complains that it causes diarrhea, what action should the nurse take in response to the client’s statement?

• A. Explain that diarrhea is expected, but the drug reduces ammonia levels
• B. Document that the client is non-compliant with his treatment plan
• C. Tell the client to be concerned about more significant side effects of this drug
• D. Obtain a prescription for loperamide (Imodium) 4mg PO PRN diarrhea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Diarrhea is an expected side effect of lactulose when used to reduce ammonia levels in cirrhosis. It helps in decreasing the absorption of ammonia in the colon, thereby reducing its levels in the blood. Option B is incorrect because it is essential for the nurse to educate the client about the expected side effects of the medication rather than assuming non-compliance. Option C is incorrect as it instills unnecessary fear in the client by suggesting more significant side effects without addressing the current concern. Option D is incorrect as loperamide should not be given automatically for diarrhea caused by lactulose, as the diarrhea is a therapeutic effect of the medication in this context.

Similar Questions