an older client is receiving an iv of 5 dextrose in 045 normal saline at 75 mlhour which assessment finding indicates to the nurse that the client is
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Test Bank Medical Surgical Nursing

1. An older client is receiving an IV of 5% dextrose in 0.45% normal saline at 75 mL/hour. Which assessment finding indicates to the nurse that the client is developing a complication from this therapy?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Tachycardia and dyspnea are signs of fluid overload, which is a potential complication of IV fluid therapy. Choices A, B, and C are not directly related to fluid overload and are not typical signs of complications associated with the IV fluid therapy being administered.

2. A client with peptic ulcer disease is prescribed sucralfate. What is the mechanism of action of this medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Covers the ulcer site and protects it from acid. Sucralfate works by forming a protective barrier over ulcers, shielding them from stomach acid and promoting healing. Choice A, neutralizing stomach acid, is incorrect as sucralfate does not neutralize acid but acts as a physical barrier. Choice B, decreasing gastric acid secretion, is not the mechanism of action of sucralfate. Choice D, improving gastric motility, is unrelated to sucralfate's action on peptic ulcers.

3. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) presented with shortness of breath. Oxygen therapy was started at 2 liters/minute via nasal cannula. The arterial blood gases (ABGs) after treatment were pH 7.36, PaO2 52, PaCO2 59, HCO3 33. Which statement describes the most likely cause of the simultaneous increase in both PaO2 and PaCO2?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Oxygen therapy can reduce the hypoxic drive in COPD patients, leading to increased PaCO2 levels while improving oxygenation (PaO2). In this case, the increase in PaO2 and PaCO2 is due to the reduction of the hypoxic drive by the supplemental oxygen. Choice A is incorrect because hyperventilation would lead to decreased PaCO2. Choice C is incorrect as the ABG values do not indicate respiratory alkalosis. Choice D is incorrect as the ABG values do not support metabolic acidosis.

4. Which pathology is associated with an asthma condition?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Recurrent spasms of the airways accompanied by edema and mucus production. Asthma is characterized by bronchospasms, inflammation, swelling of the airways, and increased mucus production. This leads to airway constriction, making it difficult to breathe. Choices A, C, and D do not represent the typical pathology seen in asthma. Chronic dilation and inflammation of the bronchi (Choice A) is more characteristic of bronchiectasis, progressive loss of lung function due to destruction of alveolar walls (Choice C) is seen in conditions like emphysema, and infection of the lung parenchyma (Choice D) is more related to conditions like pneumonia.

5. When performing postural drainage on a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), which approach should the nurse use?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct approach when performing postural drainage on a client with COPD is to assist the patient into a position that allows gravity to help move secretions. This position helps drain secretions from specific segments of the lungs. Obtaining arterial blood gases (Choice A) is not directly related to postural drainage. While the client may be placed in multiple positions during postural drainage, the key is to position them to facilitate the movement of secretions, not just any five positions as mentioned in Choice B. Encouraging deep breathing (Choice D) is a good nursing intervention for overall respiratory health but is not specifically related to the technique of postural drainage.

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