Nursing Elites

1. A male client with Herpes Zoster (shingles) on his thorax tells the nurse that he is having difficulty sleeping. What is the etiology of this problem?

• A. Pain
• B. Nocturia
• C. Dyspnea
• D. Frequent cough

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pain. The pain caused by Herpes Zoster (shingles) can disrupt sleep patterns. It is a common symptom of shingles and can lead to difficulty falling asleep or staying asleep. Nocturia (B), dyspnea (C), and frequent cough (D) are not typically associated with shingles and would not directly cause difficulty sleeping in this scenario.

2. A client with chronic kidney disease is receiving epoetin alfa. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of the treatment?

• A. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
• B. Serum creatinine
• C. Hemoglobin and hematocrit
• D. Serum potassium

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hemoglobin and hematocrit. Epoetin alfa is a medication that stimulates red blood cell production, so monitoring hemoglobin and hematocrit levels is essential to assess its effectiveness. These values reflect the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood and can indicate if the treatment is improving anemia related to chronic kidney disease. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and serum creatinine are indicators of kidney function, while serum potassium levels are monitored due to electrolyte imbalances commonly seen in kidney disease, but they do not directly reflect the effectiveness of epoetin alfa.

3. The nurse uses a diagram to show that the tetralogy of Fallot involves a combination of four congenital defects. What are the defects?

• A. Aortic stenosis, atrial septal defect, overriding aorta, left ventricular hypertrophy
• B. Pulmonary stenosis, ventricular septal defect, overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy
• C. Aortic stenosis, atrial septal defect, overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy
• D. Pulmonary stenosis, ventricular septal defect, aortic hypertrophy, left ventricular hypertrophy

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pulmonary stenosis, ventricular septal defect, overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy. Tetralogy of Fallot involves these four congenital defects. Choice A is incorrect because it includes aortic stenosis instead of pulmonary stenosis, atrial septal defect instead of ventricular septal defect, and left ventricular hypertrophy instead of right ventricular hypertrophy. Choice C is incorrect as it includes aortic stenosis and atrial septal defect instead of pulmonary stenosis and ventricular septal defect. Choice D is incorrect because it includes aortic hypertrophy instead of overriding aorta.

4. A postoperative client reports incisional pain. The client has two prescriptions for PRN analgesia that accompanied the client from the post-anesthesia unit. Before selecting which medication to administer, which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Document the client's report of pain in the electronic medical record.
• B. Determine which prescription will have the quickest onset of action.
• C. Compare the client's pain scale rating with the prescribed dosing.
• D. Ask the client to choose which medication is needed for the pain.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should implement before selecting which medication to administer to a postoperative client who reports incisional pain is to compare the client's pain scale rating with the prescribed dosing. This ensures that the client receives the appropriate medication based on their pain level. Documenting the client's report of pain in the electronic medical record (Choice A) is important but should come after ensuring the right medication is given. Determining which prescription will have the quickest onset of action (Choice B) may not be the most relevant factor to consider when choosing the appropriate medication. Asking the client to choose the medication needed for the pain (Choice D) may not be appropriate as the nurse should rely on the pain scale rating and prescribed dosing to make a clinical decision.

5. A female client who was involved in a motor vehicle collision is admitted with a fractured left femur which is immobilized using a fracture traction splint in preparation for an open reduction internal fixation (ORIF). The nurse determines that her distal pulses are diminished in the left foot. Which interventions should the nurse implement? (Select all that apply)

• A. Verify pedal pulses using a doppler pulse device.
• B. Monitor left leg for pain, pallor, paresthesia, paralysis, pressure.
• C. Evaluate the application of the splint to the left leg.
• D.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: It is crucial for the nurse to evaluate the application of the splint to the left leg in a client with diminished distal pulses. This assessment helps ensure that the splint is not causing any compromise to circulation. Verifying pulses and monitoring for leg conditions are important interventions but do not directly address the issue with the splint application in this scenario, making them less relevant.

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