Nursing Elites

1. An older client is admitted to the psychiatric unit for assessment of a recent onset of dementia. The PN notes that in the evening this client often becomes restless, confused, and agitated. Which intervention is most important for the PN to implement?

• A. Ask family members to remain with the client in the evenings from 5 to 8 pm
• B. Administer a prescribed PRN benzodiazepine at the onset of a confused state
• C. Ensure that the client is assigned to a room close to the nurses' station
• D. Postpone administration of nighttime medications until after 11 pm

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Sundowning, a phenomenon where dementia symptoms worsen in the evening, can be managed by ensuring the client is close to the nurses' station for frequent monitoring and quick intervention, if necessary. This reduces the risk of harm and helps manage agitation. Asking family members to remain with the client may not always be feasible and does not address the need for close monitoring. Administering benzodiazepines should not be the first-line intervention for sundowning as it can increase the risk of falls and other adverse effects. Postponing medication administration may disrupt the client's routine and potentially worsen symptoms.

2. A male client attends a community support program for mentally impaired and chemically abusing clients. The client tells the PN that his drugs of choice are cocaine and heroin. What is the greatest health risk for this client?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Hepatitis
• C. Glaucoma
• D. Diabetes

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hepatitis. Hepatitis is the greatest health risk for this client due to the potential for contracting the disease through needle-sharing, common among drug users. This can lead to serious liver complications. While hypertension, glaucoma, and diabetes are all important health concerns, they are not directly associated with the drug abuse mentioned in the scenario.

3. A client with a prescription for a transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulator (TENS) unit for pain management asks how it works. What information should the nurse reinforce?

• A. The discharge of electricity will distract the client's focus from the pain
• B. An infusion of medication in the spinal canal will block pain perception
• C. Pain perception in the cerebral cortex is dulled by the unit's discharge of an electrical stimulus
• D. A mild electrical stimulus on the skin surface closes the gates of nerve conduction for severe pain

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. TENS works by delivering a mild electrical stimulus that can block pain signals from reaching the brain, effectively reducing the perception of pain. Choice A is incorrect because TENS does not distract from pain but rather interferes with pain signals. Choice B is incorrect as TENS does not involve infusing medication into the spinal canal. Choice C is also incorrect because TENS does not target the cerebral cortex to dull pain perception but rather works at the level of nerve conduction.

4. A client who is post-operative from a bowel resection is experiencing abdominal distention and pain. The nurse notices the client has not passed gas or had a bowel movement. What should the nurse assess first?

• A. The client's bowel sounds.
• B. The client's fluid intake.
• C. The client's pain level.
• D. The client's surgical incision.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assessing bowel sounds is crucial in this situation as it helps determine if the client's gastrointestinal tract is functioning properly. Absent or hypoactive bowel sounds can indicate an ileus, a common post-operative complication. Assessing fluid intake (Choice B) is important but should come after assessing bowel sounds. Pain assessment (Choice C) is essential but addressing the physiological issue should take precedence. Checking the surgical incision (Choice D) is relevant but not the priority when the client is experiencing abdominal distention and potential gastrointestinal complications.

5. A homeless male client with a history of alcohol abuse had a CVA 10 years ago that resulted in left hemiparesis. Today he is brought to the clinic reporting pain in his left leg. He is afebrile, has 4+ pitting edema in the lower left leg, and has minimal swelling of the right leg. Which action should the PN implement first?

• A. Obtain a blood alcohol test
• B. Inspect legs for infection or trauma
• C. Complete a mental status exam
• D. Inquire about dietary salt intake

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Inspecting the legs for infection or trauma is the priority to assess the cause of the pain and edema, which could indicate deep vein thrombosis or cellulitis. Checking for signs of infection or trauma is crucial in this scenario to rule out potentially serious conditions. Obtaining a blood alcohol test, completing a mental status exam, or inquiring about dietary salt intake can be considered after addressing the immediate concern of identifying any infection or trauma in the leg.

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