Nursing Elites

1. An older adult male is admitted with complications related to chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). He reports progressive dyspnea that worsens on exertion, and his weakness has increased over the past month. The nurse notes that he has dependent edema in both lower legs. Based on these assessment findings, which dietary instruction should the nurse provide?

• A. Restrict daily fluid intake
• B. Eat meals at the same time daily
• C. Maintain a low-protein diet
• D. Limit the intake of high-calorie foods

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Dependent edema in both lower legs is a sign of fluid overload, which can exacerbate dyspnea in patients with COPD. Restricting daily fluid intake can help reduce the edema and alleviate breathing difficulties. A low-protein diet is not necessary unless there are specific renal concerns. Eating meals at the same time daily or limiting high-calorie foods is not directly associated with addressing fluid overload and dyspnea in COPD patients.

2. The nurse is caring for a group of clients on a surgical unit. Which client should the nurse assess first?

• A. A client who is two days post knee surgery and describes pain at a “4” on a 1 to 10 scale
• B. A client who is one day post bowel resection with no bowel sounds
• C. A client who is 8 hours post appendectomy with urinary output of 480 ml
• D. A client who was admitted with severe abdominal pain and suddenly has no pain

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A sudden absence of pain in a client with severe abdominal pain may indicate a serious condition such as internal bleeding. This sudden change in pain status requires immediate assessment to rule out any life-threatening complications. Choices A, B, and C do not indicate an acute change in the client's condition that would necessitate immediate attention compared to sudden pain relief in a client with severe abdominal pain.

3. An adult suffered burns to the face and chest resulting from a grease fire. On admission, the client was intubated, and a 2-liter bolus of normal saline was administered IV. Currently, the normal saline is infusing at 250 ml/hour. The client’s heart rate is 120 beats/minute, blood pressure is 90/50 mmHg, respirations are 12 breaths/minute over the ventilated 12 breaths for a total of 24 breaths/minute, and the central venous pressure (CVP) is 4 mm H2O. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Increase the rate of normal saline infusion
• B. Infuse an additional bolus of normal saline
• C. Lower the head of the bed to a recumbent position
• D. Bring a tracheostomy tray to the bedside

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention is to infuse an additional bolus of normal saline. The client's presentation with a heart rate of 120 beats/minute, hypotensive blood pressure of 90/50 mmHg, and low CVP of 4 mm H2O indicates hypovolemic shock. Administering more normal saline can help in restoring intravascular volume and improving perfusion. Increasing the rate of normal saline infusion (Choice A) is not the best choice as it may lead to fluid overload. Lowering the head of the bed to a recumbent position (Choice C) could worsen hypotension by reducing venous return. Bringing a tracheostomy tray to the bedside (Choice D) is not a priority at this time as the client is already intubated, and the immediate concern is addressing the hypovolemia.

4. A client has had several episodes of clear, watery diarrhea that started yesterday. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Administer a prescribed PRN antiemetic
• B. Assess the client for the presence of hemorrhoids
• C. Check the client’s hemoglobin level
• D. Review the client’s current list of medications

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement in a client experiencing clear, watery diarrhea is to review the client's current list of medications. Certain medications can cause diarrhea as a side effect, so identifying any potential culprits is essential. Administering an antiemetic (Choice A) is not appropriate for diarrhea, as antiemetics are used to control nausea and vomiting, not diarrhea. Assessing for hemorrhoids (Choice B) is not the priority when the client is experiencing watery diarrhea; addressing the root cause is crucial. Checking the client’s hemoglobin level (Choice C) is not the immediate action needed for this situation as it does not directly address the cause of diarrhea.

5. A client who is scheduled to have surgery in two hours tells the nurse, 'My doctor was here and used a lot of big words about the surgery, then asked me to sign a paper.' What action should the nurse take?

• A. Reassure the client that pre-surgery anxiety is a normal experience
• B. Explain the surgery in clear terms that the client can understand
• C. Call the surgeon back to clarify the information with the client
• D. Redirect the client’s thoughts by teaching relaxation techniques

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to explain the surgery to the client in clear terms that they can understand. This will help alleviate the client's anxiety and ensure they are well-informed about the procedure they are about to undergo. Choice A is incorrect because while reassurance is important, it does not address the client's specific concern about understanding the surgery. Choice C is not the initial step; the nurse should first attempt to clarify the information themselves. Choice D is not the priority when the client is seeking clarification about the surgery.

Similar Questions