HESI LPN
HESI CAT Exam Quizlet
1. An older adult male is admitted with complications related to chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). He reports progressive dyspnea that worsens on exertion, and his weakness has increased over the past month. The nurse notes that he has dependent edema in both lower legs. Based on these assessment findings, which dietary instruction should the nurse provide?
- A. Restrict daily fluid intake
 - B. Eat meals at the same time daily
 - C. Maintain a low-protein diet
 - D. Limit the intake of high-calorie foods
 
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Dependent edema in both lower legs is a sign of fluid overload, which can exacerbate dyspnea in patients with COPD. Restricting daily fluid intake can help reduce the edema and alleviate breathing difficulties. A low-protein diet is not necessary unless there are specific renal concerns. Eating meals at the same time daily or limiting high-calorie foods is not directly associated with addressing fluid overload and dyspnea in COPD patients.
2. Which situation is a violation of client confidentiality, as described in the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)?
- A. A sign-in sheet kept at the front desk listing clients' last names and the time of their arrival
 - B. A nurse's handwritten notes from a telephone report discarded in the office wastebasket
 - C. A computer monitor screen located at the nurse's station in a high-traffic area
 - D. Privileged Health Information (PHI) given to an ambulance driver for the transfer of a client
 
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Choice C is a violation of client confidentiality as it exposes patient information to unauthorized individuals due to its location in a high-traffic area. HIPAA regulations require that electronic protected health information (ePHI) be safeguarded against unauthorized access, making the situation described in choice C a violation. Choices A, B, and D do not directly involve the exposure of patient information to unauthorized individuals. While choices A and B may pose some risks, they are not as severe as the direct exposure described in choice C. Choice D involves sharing information with an ambulance driver for a legitimate purpose, which does not violate HIPAA if done securely and in compliance with regulations.
3. The nurse assesses a client one hour after starting a transfusion of packed red blood cells and determines that there are no indications of a transfusion reaction. What instructions should the nurse provide the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) who is working with the nurse?
- A. Continue to measure the client’s vital signs every thirty minutes until the transfusion is complete
 - B. Since a reaction did not occur, the priority is to maintain client comfort during the transfusion
 - C. Monitor the client carefully for the next three hours and report the onset of a reaction immediately
 - D. Notify the nurse when the transfusion has finished, so further client assessment can be done
 
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for the UAP is to continue measuring the client’s vital signs every thirty minutes until the transfusion is complete. This is important because continuous monitoring of vital signs during the transfusion helps detect any delayed reactions promptly. Choice B is incorrect because maintaining client comfort is important but not the priority over monitoring vital signs. Choice C is incorrect as monitoring should be ongoing and not limited to a specific time frame. Choice D is incorrect as the UAP should monitor vital signs throughout the transfusion, not just at the end.
4. When caring for a laboring client whose contractions are occurring every 2-3 minutes, the nurse should document that the pump is infusing how many ml/hour? (Enter numeric value only. If rounding is required, round to the nearest whole number. Click on each chart tab for additional information. Please be sure to scroll to the bottom right corner of each tab to view all information contained in the client’s medical record.)
- A. 5
 - B. 10
 - C. 15
 - D. 20
 
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct infusion rate can be calculated based on the information provided in the chart. With contractions occurring every 2-3 minutes, the recommended infusion rate is 5 ml/hr. This rate ensures proper hydration and medication delivery to support the client during labor. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the calculated rate based on the contractions frequency and the client's needs.
5. A client with osteoporosis related to long-term corticosteroid therapy receives a prescription for calcium carbonate. Which client’s serum laboratory value requires intervention by the nurse?
- A. Total calcium 9 mg/dl (2.25 mmol/L SI)
 - B. Creatinine 4 mg/dl (354 micromol/L SI)
 - C. Phosphate 4 mg/dl (1.293 mmol/L SI)
 - D. Fasting glucose 95 mg/dl (5.3 mmol/L SI)
 
Correct answer: B
Rationale: An elevated creatinine level indicates possible renal impairment, which requires intervention. High creatinine levels are associated with decreased kidney function, and in this case, it suggests potential renal issues due to long-term corticosteroid therapy. Monitoring renal function is crucial in clients with osteoporosis on corticosteroid therapy to prevent further complications. Total calcium levels within the normal range are suitable for a client with osteoporosis receiving calcium carbonate. Phosphate and fasting glucose levels do not directly indicate renal impairment in this scenario.
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