HESI LPN
HESI CAT Exam Quizlet
1. An older adult male is admitted with complications related to chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). He reports progressive dyspnea that worsens on exertion, and his weakness has increased over the past month. The nurse notes that he has dependent edema in both lower legs. Based on these assessment findings, which dietary instruction should the nurse provide?
- A. Restrict daily fluid intake
- B. Eat meals at the same time daily
- C. Maintain a low-protein diet
- D. Limit the intake of high-calorie foods
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Dependent edema in both lower legs is a sign of fluid overload, which can exacerbate dyspnea in patients with COPD. Restricting daily fluid intake can help reduce the edema and alleviate breathing difficulties. A low-protein diet is not necessary unless there are specific renal concerns. Eating meals at the same time daily or limiting high-calorie foods is not directly associated with addressing fluid overload and dyspnea in COPD patients.
2. A client reports mild back pain after receiving analgesia 1 hour ago. Which non-pharmacological pain method should the nurse plan to use?
- A. Apply an ice pack to the client's back for 1 hour.
- B. Remove distractions from the client’s room.
- C. Instruct the client to take deep rhythmic breaths.
- D. Encourage the client to apply a heating pad for 2 hours at a time.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should instruct the client to take deep rhythmic breaths as a non-pharmacological pain management method. Deep breathing can help the client relax, reduce stress, and manage pain effectively. Applying heat or ice for prolonged periods can lead to tissue damage. Removing distractions can be helpful for promoting relaxation but may not directly address the pain itself.
3. During an inspection of a client's fingernails, the nurse notices a suspected abnormality in the shape and character of the nails. Which finding should the nurse document?
- A. Clubbed nails
- B. Splinter hemorrhages
- C. Longitudinal ridges
- D. Koilonychia or spoon nails
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Clubbed nails are a significant finding in clients with chronic hypoxia or lung disease. This abnormality is characterized by an increased curvature of the nails and softening of the nail bed. It can indicate underlying health conditions such as respiratory or cardiovascular issues. Splinter hemorrhages (B) are small areas of bleeding under the nails, typically associated with infective endocarditis. Longitudinal ridges (C) are often a normal age-related change in the nails. Koilonychia or spoon nails (D) present as a concave shape of the nails and are commonly seen in clients with iron deficiency anemia or hemochromatosis. Therefore, documenting clubbed nails is the most relevant abnormality to report and investigate further.
4. A young adult woman visits the clinic and learns that she is positive for BRCA1 gene mutation and asks the nurse what to expect next. How should the nurse respond?
- A. Explain that counseling will be provided to give her information about her cancer risk.
- B. Gather additional information about the client’s family history for all types of cancer.
- C. Offer assurance that there are a variety of effective treatments for breast cancer.
- D. Provide information about survival rates for women who have this genetic mutation.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because counseling will help the woman understand her risk and options for surveillance or preventive measures. At this point, it is crucial to address the woman's immediate concerns related to the BRCA1 gene mutation. Choice B is incorrect as the focus should be on the woman's individual risk due to the specific gene mutation she carries. Choice C is not the priority as treatment options come after assessing the risk and deciding on surveillance or preventive measures. Choice D is incorrect because discussing survival rates is not the immediate need for someone who has just received information about having a genetic mutation.
5. A perinatal nurse is caring for a woman in the immediate postpartum period. Assessment reveals that the client is experiencing profuse bleeding. What is the most likely cause of this bleeding?
- A. Uterine atony.
- B. Uterine inversion.
- C. Vaginal hematoma.
- D. Vaginal laceration.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Uterine atony is significant hypotonia of the uterus and is the leading cause of postpartum hemorrhage. It results in the inability of the uterus to contract effectively after delivery, leading to excessive bleeding. Uterine inversion is a rare but serious complication that involves the turning inside out of the uterus, leading to hemorrhage, but it is not the most likely cause of profuse bleeding in this scenario. Vaginal hematoma may cause bleeding but is typically associated with pain as a primary symptom rather than profuse bleeding. Vaginal lacerations can cause bleeding, but in the presence of a firm, contracted uterine fundus, uterine atony is a more likely cause of ongoing profuse bleeding in the postpartum period.