Nursing Elites

1. An older adult male is admitted with complications related to chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). He reports progressive dyspnea that worsens on exertion, and his weakness has increased over the past month. The nurse notes that he has dependent edema in both lower legs. Based on these assessment findings, which dietary instruction should the nurse provide?

• A. Restrict daily fluid intake
• B. Eat meals at the same time daily
• C. Maintain a low-protein diet
• D. Limit the intake of high-calorie foods

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Dependent edema in both lower legs is a sign of fluid overload, which can exacerbate dyspnea in patients with COPD. Restricting daily fluid intake can help reduce the edema and alleviate breathing difficulties. A low-protein diet is not necessary unless there are specific renal concerns. Eating meals at the same time daily or limiting high-calorie foods is not directly associated with addressing fluid overload and dyspnea in COPD patients.

2. A 2-year-old boy with short bowel syndrome has progressed to receiving enteral feedings only. Today his stools are occurring more frequently and have a more liquid consistency. His temperature is 102.2 °F, and he has vomited twice in the past four hours. Which assessment finding indicates that the child is becoming dehydrated?

• A. Occult blood in the stool
• B. Abdominal distention
• C. Elevated urine specific gravity
• D. Hyperactive bowel sounds

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Elevated urine specific gravity indicates concentrated urine, a sign of dehydration. In this scenario, the child is showing signs of dehydration with increased stool frequency, liquid consistency, fever, and vomiting. Occult blood in the stool may indicate gastrointestinal bleeding but is not a specific sign of dehydration. Abdominal distention can be seen in various conditions and is not a specific indicator of dehydration. Hyperactive bowel sounds can be present in various gastrointestinal conditions but are not directly related to dehydration.

3. When deciding whether to join a nursing strike called after collective bargaining efforts have failed, which factor is most important for the nurse to consider?

• A. Nurse Practice Act of the State
• B. The role of nurses as client advocates
• C. Standards of clinical nursing practice
• D. Personal value system

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The role of nurses as client advocates is crucial when considering the impact of a strike on patient care. Nurses have a responsibility to advocate for their patients' well-being at all times. Choices A, C, and D, although important, are not the most critical factor to consider in this situation. The Nurse Practice Act of the State is essential for guiding nursing practice, standards of clinical nursing practice ensure quality care, and personal values are important; however, the primary focus during a strike should be on the role of nurses as client advocates.

4. A young adult client was admitted 36 hours ago for a head injury that occurred as a result of a motorcycle accident. In the last 4 hours, the client’s urine output has increased to over 200 ml/hour. Before reporting the finding to the healthcare provider, which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Obtain capillary blood samples for glucose every 2 hours
• B. Measure oral secretions suctioned during the last 4 hours
• C. Evaluate the urine osmolality and serum osmolality values
• D. Obtain blood pressure and assess for dependent edema

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to evaluate the urine osmolality and serum osmolality values. The increased urine output following a head injury could indicate diabetes insipidus, a condition characterized by excessive urination and extreme thirst. Evaluating osmolality is crucial for diagnosing diabetes insipidus. Choice A is incorrect because obtaining capillary blood samples for glucose every 2 hours is not the priority in this situation. Choice B is irrelevant to the client's current symptom of increased urine output. Choice D is also not the most appropriate intervention as the focus should be on assessing for a potential endocrine issue related to the increased urine output.

5. The healthcare provider prescribes potassium chloride 25 mEq in 500 ml D5W to infuse over 6 hours. The available 20 ml vial of potassium chloride is labeled '10 mEq/5 ml.' How many ml of potassium chloride should the nurse add to the IV fluid?

• A. 12.5
• B. 5
• C. 10
• D. 20

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To prepare 25 mEq of potassium chloride for the infusion, the nurse should add 5 ml of the 10 mEq/5 ml solution. This concentration provides the required amount of potassium chloride without exceeding the needed volume. Choice A would result in 12.5 mEq, which exceeds the prescribed amount. Choices C and D are incorrect as they do not align with the correct calculation based on the vial concentration.

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