Nursing Elites

1. An older adult client has been hospitalized on bed rest for 1 week. The client reports elbow pain. Which of the following is an appropriate initial action for the nurse caring for this client to take?

• A. Examine the elbow
• B. Administer pain medication
• C. Apply a warm compress to the elbow
• D. Assess the client’s range of motion

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The appropriate initial action for the nurse is to examine the elbow. This step is crucial to assess the site of pain, identify any visible signs of injury or inflammation, and determine the cause of the discomfort. Administering pain medication (Choice B) should come after a thorough assessment. Applying a warm compress (Choice C) might provide temporary relief but does not address the underlying cause. Assessing the client’s range of motion (Choice D) is important but would come after the initial examination to further evaluate the elbow joint.

2. A nurse is preparing an infusion for a client who was hospitalized with deep-vein thrombosis. The orders read: 25,000 units of heparin in 250 mL of 0.9% sodium chloride to infuse at 800 units/hr. At what rate should the nurse set the infusion pump?

• A. 8 mL/hr
• B. 10 mL/hr
• C. 12 mL/hr
• D. 15 mL/hr

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the infusion rate, use the formula: (Desired units/hr / Total units) × Volume. In this case, it would be (800 units/hr / 25,000 units) × 250 mL = 8 mL/hr. Therefore, the nurse should set the infusion pump at 8 mL/hr. Choice B, 10 mL/hr, is incorrect because it does not match the calculated rate. Choices C and D, 12 mL/hr and 15 mL/hr respectively, are also incorrect as they do not align with the correct calculation based on the provided data.

3. A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is caring for a group of clients. For which of the following clients should the nurse expect a prescription for fluid restriction?

• A. A client who has a new diagnosis of adrenal insufficiency
• B. A client who has heart failure
• C. A client who is receiving treatment for diabetic ketoacidosis
• D. A client who has abdominal ascites

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Fluid restriction is commonly prescribed for clients with heart failure to prevent fluid overload and exacerbation of heart failure symptoms. Heart failure often leads to fluid retention, and restricting fluid intake can help manage this condition. Adrenal insufficiency, diabetic ketoacidosis, and abdominal ascites do not typically require fluid restriction as a primary intervention. Adrenal insufficiency may require hormone replacement therapy, diabetic ketoacidosis requires fluid and electrolyte replacement, and abdominal ascites may require diuretics or paracentesis to remove excess fluid.

4. A nurse prepares an injection of morphine to administer to a client who reports pain but asks a second nurse to give the injection because another assigned client needs to use a bedpan. Which of the following actions should the second nurse take?

• A. Offer to assist the client who needs the bedpan.
• B. Administer the injection the other nurse prepared.
• C. Prepare another syringe and administer the injection.
• D. Tell the client who needs the bedpan to wait while the nurse gives someone else medication.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The second nurse should prepare a new syringe and administer the medication to ensure proper and timely pain management. Administering another nurse's medication without preparation could lead to errors. Choice A is not the priority as the medication administration should take precedence. Choice B is not recommended as the second nurse should not administer medication prepared by another nurse. Choice D is inappropriate as patient needs should not be compromised for medication administration to another client.

5. While suctioning a client's nasopharynx, the nurse observes that the client's oxygen saturation remains at 94%, which is the same reading obtained prior to starting the procedure. What action should the nurse take in response to this finding?

• A. Complete the intermittent suction of the nasopharynx.
• B. Reposition the pulse oximeter clip to obtain a new reading.
• C. Stop suctioning until the pulse oximeter reading is above 95%.
• D. Apply an oxygen mask over the client's nose and mouth.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to complete the intermittent suction of the nasopharynx. Since the oxygen saturation remains stable at 94%, which was the initial reading, it indicates that the procedure is not causing a significant drop in oxygen levels. Stopping the suctioning or applying oxygen may not be necessary as the saturation level is within an acceptable range. Repositioning the pulse oximeter clip is unlikely to change the reading significantly. Therefore, completing the procedure maintains care consistency and effectiveness, ensuring proper airway management without unnecessary interventions. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because repositioning the pulse oximeter clip, stopping suctioning until a higher reading is achieved, and applying oxygen are not warranted based on the stable oxygen saturation level of 94% throughout the procedure.

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