Nursing Elites

1. Before starting an intensive exercise program, what instruction is most important for the nurse to provide to the client?

• A. Be sure to have a complete physical examination before beginning your planned exercise program.
• B. Be careful that the exercise program doesn't simply add to your stress level, making you want to eat more.
• C. Increased exercise helps to reduce stress, so you may not need to spend money on a stress management class.
• D. Make sure to monitor your weight loss regularly to provide a sense of accomplishment and motivation.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Before starting an intensive exercise program, it is crucial for the client to have a complete physical examination. This examination ensures that the client is physically fit to engage in such activities and helps in identifying any underlying health issues that could be exacerbated by the exercise regimen. Choice B is incorrect because it focuses on stress levels related to eating habits rather than the importance of a physical examination for safety. Choice C is incorrect as exercise and stress management classes can complement each other rather than being mutually exclusive. Choice D is incorrect as monitoring weight loss, while important, is not as critical as ensuring the client's physical readiness for the exercise program.

2. A client is evaluated by a nurse regarding the use of a sequential compression device. Which of the following client statements indicates understanding of the device's purpose?

• A. “This device will keep me from developing skin sores.”
• B. “This device will keep the blood circulating in my leg.”
• C. “This device will prevent my leg muscles from weakening.”
• D. “This device will maintain the health of my joints.”

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because sequential compression devices are utilized to enhance circulation and prevent clot formation in the legs. Option A is incorrect because these devices are not primarily meant to prevent skin sores. Option C is incorrect because the devices do not directly address muscle weakness. Option D is incorrect as the main purpose of sequential compression devices is not related to joint health.

3. A client with a diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving anticoagulation therapy. Which of the following laboratory values would be most concerning?

• A. INR of 1.5
• B. Platelet count of 200,000/mm³
• C. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL
• D. aPTT of 70 seconds

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An INR of 1.5 is below the therapeutic range for clients on anticoagulation therapy, increasing the risk of clot formation. A lower INR indicates inadequate anticoagulation, which can lead to thrombus formation and potential complications such as progression or recurrence of deep vein thrombosis. Platelet count, hemoglobin level, and aPTT are important parameters to monitor in a client with DVT. However, in this scenario, the most concerning value is the suboptimal INR level because it signifies a lack of anticoagulation effectiveness and poses a higher risk of clotting issues.

4. A healthcare provider is providing teaching about health promotion guidelines to a group of young adult male clients. Which of the following guidelines should the healthcare provider include?

• A. Obtain a tetanus booster every 5 years.
• B. Obtain a herpes zoster immunization by age 50.
• C. Have a dental examination every 6 months.
• D. Have a testicular examination every 2 years.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Having a dental examination every 6 months is crucial for young adult males as it helps in maintaining good oral health and detecting any potential issues early on. Tetanus booster every 10 years is recommended for adults, not every 5 years (Choice A). Herpes zoster immunization is typically recommended for individuals aged 60 and older, not by age 50 (Choice B). While testicular self-examination is important for detecting testicular cancer, routine clinical testicular examinations are not generally needed every 2 years (Choice D). Therefore, the correct answer is to have a dental examination every 6 months.

5. A client is experiencing dehydration, and the nurse is planning care. Which of the following actions should the nurse include?

• A. Administer antihypertensives as prescribed.
• B. Check the client’s weight daily.
• C. Notify the provider if the urine output is less than 30 mL/hr.
• D. Encourage the client to ambulate independently four times a day.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Checking the client's weight daily is essential for monitoring fluid status in dehydration. Administering antihypertensives, notifying the provider of insufficient urine output, and encouraging ambulation are not primary interventions for managing dehydration. Administering antihypertensives may affect blood pressure, but it is not a direct intervention for dehydration. Notifying the provider of a urine output less than 30 mL/hr indicates oliguria, which is a sign of reduced kidney function rather than dehydration. Encouraging ambulation is a general nursing intervention and does not directly address the fluid imbalance associated with dehydration.

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