Nursing Elites

1. An example of the continuum health model of health and wellness would be:

• A. a person is either well or not, and the emphasis is on continuously and aggressively treating people who are ill
• B. predicting that a person will most likely continue good health practices, based on his or her health practices in the past, such as getting flu shots
• C. using acupuncture and therapeutic touch to cure disease instead of traditional medical therapies
• D. none of the above

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The continuum health model emphasizes ongoing health practices based on past behaviors. Choice A is incorrect as it describes a more binary approach to health. Choice C is incorrect as it focuses on alternative therapies rather than the continuity of health practices.

2. A client with rheumatoid arthritis is receiving methotrexate (Rheumatrex). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Leukopenia
• B. Hyperglycemia
• C. Hypertension
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Leukopenia. Methotrexate, used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis, can lead to bone marrow suppression, resulting in leukopenia. This condition increases the risk of infections due to decreased white blood cell count. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because methotrexate is not known to cause hyperglycemia, hypertension, or hypokalemia as its primary adverse effects.

3. Which of the following is an example of a modifiable risk factor for chronic diseases?

• A. Age
• B. Gender
• C. Genetic predisposition
• D. Physical inactivity

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Physical inactivity is a modifiable risk factor for chronic diseases because individuals have control over their level of physical activity. By increasing physical activity, the risk of chronic diseases can be reduced. Choices A, B, and C are not modifiable risk factors: Age is a non-modifiable factor, gender is a biological characteristic, and genetic predisposition is inherent and cannot be altered.

4. Which finding would be the most characteristic of an acute episode of reactive airway disease?

• A. Auditory gurgling
• B. Inspiratory laryngeal stridor
• C. Auditory expiratory wheezing
• D. Frequent dry coughing

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Auditory expiratory wheezing. Expiratory wheezing is a common sign of reactive airway disease, such as asthma, where airways are constricted, making it difficult to expel air from the lungs. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are not typically associated with reactive airway disease. Auditory gurgling may suggest airway secretions or fluid accumulation, inspiratory laryngeal stridor indicates upper airway obstruction, and frequent dry coughing is more commonly seen in conditions like upper respiratory infections or postnasal drip.

5. A client with HIV/AIDS is receiving zidovudine (Retrovir). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Hyperglycemia
• B. Anemia
• C. Hypertension
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Anemia. Zidovudine (Retrovir) can cause bone marrow suppression, leading to anemia. Monitoring for signs of anemia, such as fatigue, pallor, and shortness of breath, is crucial. Choice A, Hyperglycemia, is not a common adverse effect of zidovudine. Choice C, Hypertension, is not directly associated with zidovudine use. Choice D, Hypercalcemia, is also not a typical adverse effect of zidovudine.

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