Nursing Elites

1. A client with schizophrenia is experiencing auditory hallucinations that command him to harm himself. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Ensure the client is not left alone.
• B. Document the content of the hallucinations.
• C. Administer PRN antipsychotic medication.
• D. Encourage the client to ignore the voices.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to ensure the client is not left alone. When a client with schizophrenia is having auditory hallucinations that command self-harm, the priority is to ensure the client's safety. Leaving the client alone may increase the risk of self-harm. Documenting the content of the hallucinations (choice B) is important but not the priority when immediate safety is a concern. Administering PRN antipsychotic medication (choice C) may be necessary but is not the priority over ensuring the client's immediate safety. Encouraging the client to ignore the voices (choice D) is not as effective as ensuring the client's safety by being present and providing support.

2. During the manic phase of bipolar disorder, what is the priority nursing intervention for a female client who has not slept for the past 48 hours, is hyperactive, talkative, and engaging in risky behaviors?

• A. Encourage the client to participate in a quiet activity.
• B. Provide a safe environment and limit stimuli.
• C. Administer a sedative to help the client sleep.
• D. Discuss the consequences of her risky behaviors.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct priority nursing intervention for a female client in the manic phase of bipolar disorder, who has not slept for 48 hours, is hyperactive, talkative, and engaging in risky behaviors, is to provide a safe environment and limit stimuli. This approach is crucial to prevent harm to the client and others. Encouraging a quiet activity (Choice A) may not effectively address the need for safety during the manic phase. Administering a sedative (Choice C) should be done under the guidance of a healthcare provider and does not address the immediate safety concerns. Discussing consequences of risky behaviors (Choice D) may not be effective during the manic phase when the client's judgment is impaired.

3. The nurse is taking a history for a female client who is requesting a routine female exam. Which assessment finding requires follow-up?

• A. Menstruation onset at age 9.
• B. Contraceptive method includes condoms only.
• C. Menstrual cycle occurs every 35 days.
• D. 'Black-out' after one drink last night on a date.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Experiencing a 'black-out' after consuming only one drink is highly unusual and may indicate the client was drugged, necessitating immediate follow-up. Menstruation onset at age 9 and a menstrual cycle occurring every 35 days, although on the outer ranges of 'average,' are within acceptable norms. Relying solely on condoms as a contraceptive method increases the risk of conception.

4. Based on non-compliance with the medication regimen, an adult client with a medical diagnosis of substance abuse and schizophrenia was recently switched from oral fluphenazine HCl (Prolixin) to IM fluphenazine decanoate (Prolixin Decanoate). What is most important to teach the client and family about this change in medication regimen?

• A. Signs and symptoms of extrapyramidal effects (EPS).
• B. Information about substance abuse and schizophrenia.
• C. The effects of alcohol and drug interaction.
• D. The availability of support groups for those with dual diagnoses.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Teaching about the effects of alcohol and drug interaction is crucial to prevent adverse reactions, especially with the long-acting injectable form of fluphenazine. Understanding how alcohol and drugs can interact with the medication will help the client and family to ensure medication effectiveness and avoid potential harmful effects. Choices A, B, and D are not the most important to teach in this scenario. While knowing the signs and symptoms of extrapyramidal effects (EPS) is important, understanding the effects of alcohol and drug interaction is more critical in this specific situation. Information about substance abuse and schizophrenia, as well as the availability of support groups, are essential aspects of care but are not the primary focus when switching to a long-acting injectable medication due to non-compliance.

5. A client who has just been sexually assaulted is calm and quiet. The nurse analyzes this behavior as indicating which defense mechanism?

• A. Denial
• B. Projection
• C. Rationalization
• D. Intellectualization

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Denial. In this situation, the client's calm and quiet demeanor after a traumatic event like sexual assault may indicate denial, a defense mechanism where the individual refuses to acknowledge the reality of the distressing event. Choice B, Projection, involves attributing one's thoughts or feelings to others. Choice C, Rationalization, is a defense mechanism where logical reasoning is used to justify behaviors or feelings. Choice D, Intellectualization, is a defense mechanism where excessive reasoning or logic is used to avoid uncomfortable emotions.

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