HESI LPN
HESI CAT Exam 2022
1. The nurse is preparing to administer an oral antibiotic to a client with unilateral weakness, ptosis, mouth drooping, and aspiration pneumonia. What is the priority nursing assessment that should be done before administering this medication?
- A. Ask the client about soft food preferences
- B. Auscultate the client’s breath sounds
- C. Obtain and record the client’s vital signs
- D. Determine which side of the body is weak
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to auscultate the client’s breath sounds. Assessing breath sounds is crucial in this scenario as it helps ensure that the client can safely swallow the oral antibiotic without aspirating. Unilateral weakness, ptosis, mouth drooping, and aspiration pneumonia indicate potential swallowing difficulties, making it essential to assess breath sounds for any signs of respiratory issues. Asking about food preferences (choice A) may be relevant later but is not the priority before administering the medication. While obtaining vital signs (choice C) is important, assessing breath sounds takes precedence in this case. Determining which side of the body is weak (choice D) is not the priority assessment before administering the oral antibiotic.
2. An experienced nurse tells the nurse-manager that working with a new graduate is impossible because the new graduate will not listen to suggestions. The new graduate comes to the nurse-manager describing the senior nurse’s attitude as challenging and offensive. What action is best for the nurse manager to take?
- A. Have both nurses meet separately with the staff mental health consultant
- B. Listen actively to both nurses and offer suggestions to solve the dilemma
- C. Ask the senior nurse to examine mentoring strategies used with the new graduate
- D. Ask the nurses to meet with the nurse-manager to identify ways of working together
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the best action for the nurse manager to take is to ask the nurses to meet with the nurse-manager to identify ways of working together. This approach promotes open communication, facilitates understanding of both perspectives, and encourages collaborative problem-solving. Option A is not ideal as involving a mental health consultant may be premature for this situation. Option B, although helpful in listening to both parties, does not directly address the need for collaboration. Option C focuses on the senior nurse's mentoring strategies only, rather than addressing the conflict between the two nurses.
3. When entering a client’s room to administer an 0900 IV antibiotic, the nurse finds that the client is engaged in sexual activity with a visitor. Which actions should the nurse implement?
- A. Ignore the behavior and administer the IV antibiotic
- B. Tell the client to stop the inappropriate behavior
- C. Leave the room and close the door quietly
- D. Complete an unusual occurrence report
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse in this situation is to leave the room and close the door quietly. This response respects the client's privacy, maintains professionalism, and avoids interrupting the client's personal moment. Choice A is incorrect because ignoring the behavior is not appropriate and may invade the client's privacy further. Choice B is incorrect as it can embarrass the client and the visitor, breaching their privacy and dignity. Choice D is also incorrect as the immediate priority is to respect the client's privacy and address the situation discreetly.
4. The nurse is assessing an infant with pyloric stenosis. Which pathophysiological mechanism is the most likely consequence of this infant’s clinical picture?
- A. Metabolic acidosis
- B. Metabolic alkalosis
- C. Respiratory alkalosis
- D. Respiratory acidosis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Pyloric stenosis often leads to metabolic alkalosis due to the loss of gastric acid from vomiting. Metabolic acidosis would not be expected in pyloric stenosis as there is no excessive acid accumulation. Respiratory alkalosis and respiratory acidosis are not typically associated with pyloric stenosis, making them incorrect choices.
5. After a sudden loss of consciousness, a female client is taken to the ED, and initial assessment indicates that her blood glucose level is critically low. Once her glucose level is stabilized, the client reports that she was recently diagnosed with anorexia nervosa and is being treated at an outpatient clinic. Which intervention is more important to include in this client’s discharge plan?
- A. Describe the importance of maintaining stable blood glucose levels.
- B. Encourage a balanced and nutritious diet.
- C. Reinforce the need to continue outpatient treatment.
- D. Educate on the risks of untreated anorexia nervosa.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Continuing outpatient treatment is crucial for managing anorexia nervosa and preventing future complications. Reinforcing the need to continue outpatient treatment ensures ongoing support, monitoring, and therapy for the client's anorexia nervosa. Describing the importance of maintaining stable blood glucose levels (Choice A) is relevant but does not address the underlying eating disorder directly. Encouraging a balanced and nutritious diet (Choice B) is important; however, specific dietary recommendations should be tailored to the individual's condition by healthcare providers. Educating on the risks of untreated anorexia nervosa (Choice D) is informative but does not provide a direct actionable step for the client's immediate discharge plan, unlike the importance of continuing outpatient treatment.
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