the nurse is preparing to administer an oral antibiotic to a client with unilateral weakness ptosis mouth drooping and aspiration pneumonia what is th
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI CAT Exam 2022

1. The nurse is preparing to administer an oral antibiotic to a client with unilateral weakness, ptosis, mouth drooping, and aspiration pneumonia. What is the priority nursing assessment that should be done before administering this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to auscultate the client’s breath sounds. Assessing breath sounds is crucial in this scenario as it helps ensure that the client can safely swallow the oral antibiotic without aspirating. Unilateral weakness, ptosis, mouth drooping, and aspiration pneumonia indicate potential swallowing difficulties, making it essential to assess breath sounds for any signs of respiratory issues. Asking about food preferences (choice A) may be relevant later but is not the priority before administering the medication. While obtaining vital signs (choice C) is important, assessing breath sounds takes precedence in this case. Determining which side of the body is weak (choice D) is not the priority assessment before administering the oral antibiotic.

2. The healthcare provider receives a report on four clients who are complaining of increased pain. Which client requires immediate attention by the healthcare provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Sharp pain related to a crushed femur indicates a severe condition and potential serious complications that require immediate attention. Crushed femur can lead to severe bleeding, nerve damage, or compartment syndrome, which are critical and life-threatening. The other choices, although painful, are less likely to present immediate life-threatening issues. Morton’s neuroma, carpal tunnel syndrome, and plantar fasciitis are painful conditions but are not typically associated with urgent, life-threatening complications like a crushed femur.

3. The nurse working on a mental health unit is prioritizing nursing care activities due to a staffing shortage. One practical nurse (PN) is on the unit with the nurse, and another RN is expected to arrive within two hours. Clients need to be awakened, and morning medications need to be prepared. Which plan is best for the nurse to implement?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The best plan for the nurse to implement is to ask the PN to administer medications as clients are awakened. This approach ensures that medication administration and client care are efficiently managed despite the staffing shortage. Option A is incorrect as it may disrupt the workflow and create unnecessary chaos. Option B is not the best choice as it does not address the immediate need for medication administration. Option D is not ideal as it delays client care until additional staff arrive, potentially compromising patient safety and timely medication administration.

4. When caring for a client with diabetes insipidus (DI), it is most important for the nurse to include frequent assessment for which conditions in the client’s plan of care?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Dry mucous membranes and hypotension are key indicators of dehydration in clients with diabetes insipidus. The excessive urination associated with DI can lead to fluid loss, resulting in dehydration. Therefore, monitoring for signs such as dry mucous membranes and hypotension is crucial to assess the client's hydration status. Choices B, C, and D are not directly related to the characteristic symptoms of DI and are less relevant in the context of this condition. Decreased appetite and headache (Choice B) are nonspecific symptoms that may occur in various conditions. Nausea, vomiting, and muscle weakness (Choice C) are not typical manifestations of DI. Elevated blood pressure and petechiae (Choice D) are not commonly associated with DI; instead, hypotension is more commonly observed due to volume depletion.

5. When preparing to discharge a male client who has been hospitalized for an adrenal crisis, the client expresses concern about having another crisis. He tells the nurse that he wants to stay in the hospital a few more days. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention is to schedule a follow-up appointment for an outpatient psychosocial assessment. This option addresses the client's concerns and provides support for managing stress and preventing future crises, which is crucial for the client's long-term care. Administering antianxiety medication before providing discharge instructions (Choice A) may not effectively address the underlying concerns. Obtaining a blood cortisol level before discharge (Choice C) is important but not the priority in this situation. Encouraging the client to remain in the hospital for a few more days (Choice D) is not the best course of action as it may not address the client's anxiety and could potentially lead to other issues.

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