the nurse is preparing to administer an oral antibiotic to a client with unilateral weakness ptosis mouth drooping and aspiration pneumonia what is th
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI CAT Exam 2022

1. The nurse is preparing to administer an oral antibiotic to a client with unilateral weakness, ptosis, mouth drooping, and aspiration pneumonia. What is the priority nursing assessment that should be done before administering this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to auscultate the client’s breath sounds. Assessing breath sounds is crucial in this scenario as it helps ensure that the client can safely swallow the oral antibiotic without aspirating. Unilateral weakness, ptosis, mouth drooping, and aspiration pneumonia indicate potential swallowing difficulties, making it essential to assess breath sounds for any signs of respiratory issues. Asking about food preferences (choice A) may be relevant later but is not the priority before administering the medication. While obtaining vital signs (choice C) is important, assessing breath sounds takes precedence in this case. Determining which side of the body is weak (choice D) is not the priority assessment before administering the oral antibiotic.

2. An 8-year-old child who weighs 60 pounds receives an order for Polycilin (Ampicillin) suspension 25 mg/kg/day divided into a dose every 8 hours. The medication is labeled '125 mg/5 ml'. How many ml should the nurse administer per dose every 8 hours?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Calculate the daily dose first: 60 pounds x 25 mg/kg = 1500 mg/day. Divide by 3 doses = 500 mg/dose. Convert to mL: (500 mg / 125 mg) x 5 ml = 20 ml. However, the question asks for the dose per administration every 8 hours, which is 1/3 of the daily dose. So, the correct calculation should be (20 ml / 3) = 6.67 ml, which rounds to 5 ml. Therefore, the correct answer is 5 ml. Choice B (10 ml) is incorrect because it doesn't consider the frequency of dosing. Choice C (15 ml) is incorrect as it overestimates the dose. Choice D (20 ml) is incorrect as it represents the total daily dose, not the dose per administration every 8 hours.

3. During the administration of albuterol per nebulizer, the client complains of shakiness. The client’s vital signs are heart rate 120 beats/minute, respirations 20 breaths/minute, blood pressure 140/80. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Shakiness is a known side effect of albuterol, which can often be managed without the need for additional medications. Educating the client about the potential side effects of albuterol, including shakiness, helps them understand what to expect and how to manage these effects. Administering an anxiolytic (Choice A) is not indicated as shakiness related to albuterol is not a sign of anxiety. Obtaining a 12-lead electrocardiogram (Choice B) is not necessary based on the client's presentation of shakiness and vital signs. Stopping the albuterol administration and restarting in 30 minutes (Choice C) may not be necessary since shakiness is a common side effect that can often be managed without interrupting the treatment.

4. The nurse is planning to assess a client's oxygen saturation to determine if additional oxygen is needed via nasal cannula. The client has bilateral below-the-knee amputations and weak, thread pedal pulses. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Placing the oximeter clip on the earlobe is appropriate for clients with poor peripheral circulation, such as those with weak and thread pedal pulses due to bilateral below-the-knee amputations. This placement can provide a more accurate reading of oxygen saturation in such clients. Choice A is incorrect because alternative methods, such as earlobe placement, can be used to obtain accurate readings. Choice B is unnecessary and not related to obtaining an accurate oxygen saturation reading. Choice C is incorrect because increasing oxygen without assessing the oxygen saturation level first can be detrimental and is not based on evidence-based practice.

5. A high school football player comes to the clinic complaining of severe acne. The mother reports recent behavior changes, including irritability and suspiciousness of friends. The nurse’s assessment reveals an elevated blood pressure. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the high school football player presenting with severe acne, behavior changes, elevated blood pressure, and suspicion of friends suggests the possible use of anabolic steroids. Anabolic steroid use can lead to such symptoms. Therefore, the nurse should first inquire about the possible use of anabolic steroids to address the root cause of the presenting issues. Encouraging the client to see a dermatologist (Choice A) may be necessary but addressing the underlying cause is crucial first. Referring the adolescent to a substance abuse program (Choice B) is premature without confirming steroid use. Suggesting a low-salt, low-fat, and caffeine-free diet (Choice C) is not the priority in this situation where a serious issue like anabolic steroid use needs immediate attention.

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