Nursing Elites

1. After witnessing a preoperative client sign the surgical consent form, what are the legal implications of the nurse's signature on the client's form as a witness?

• A. The client voluntarily grants permission for the procedure to be done
• B. The surgeon has explained to the client why the surgery is necessary
• C. The client is competent to sign the consent without impairment of judgment
• D. The client understands the risks and benefits associated with the procedure

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse's signature on the consent form signifies that the client is competent to sign the consent without impairment of judgment. This legal implication ensures that the client possesses the necessary capacity to make decisions about their healthcare. Choice A is incorrect because the nurse's signature does not imply the client's voluntary permission for the procedure. Choice B is incorrect as it pertains to the surgeon's responsibility, not the nurse's. Choice D is incorrect as the nurse's signature does not confirm the client's understanding of the risks and benefits associated with the procedure.

2. The nurse is assessing a first-day postpartum client. Which finding is most indicative of a postpartum infection?

• A. Oral temperature of 100.2°F (37.9°C)
• B. Blood pressure of 122/74 mmHg
• C. Moderate amount of foul-smelling lochia
• D. White blood count of 19,000/mm³ (19x10^9/L SI units)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A foul-smelling lochia is indicative of a postpartum infection, such as endometritis. Foul-smelling lochia suggests the presence of infection due to the breakdown of tissue by bacteria, leading to the malodor. An oral temperature elevation and an elevated white blood cell count are nonspecific and can be present in various conditions other than postpartum infections, making them less indicative. A blood pressure within normal limits is not typically associated with postpartum infections.

3. A client morning assessment includes bounding peripheral pulses, weight gain of 2 pounds, pitting ankle edema, and moist crackles bilaterally. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in this client’s plan of care?

• A. Restrict daily fluid intake to 1500 ml
• B. Weight the client every morning
• C. Maintain accurate intake and output
• D. Administer prescribed diuretic

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering a prescribed diuretic is the most important intervention in this scenario as the client is presenting signs of fluid overload and heart failure. Diuretics help reduce fluid retention in the body, alleviating symptoms like edema and crackles. Restricting fluid intake may be necessary in some cases, but in this acute situation, addressing the immediate fluid overload with a diuretic takes precedence. Weighing the client daily and maintaining accurate intake and output are important aspects of monitoring, but they do not directly address the urgent need to manage fluid overload.

4. What should be the school nurse's first action after being notified that Child A has bitten Child B on the arm, resulting in broken skin but no bleeding?

• A. Apply antibiotic cream to Child B’s arm immediately
• B. Determine if Child A has a history of Hepatitis C or HIV
• C. Determine the date of Child B’s latest tetanus booster
• D. Wash Child B’s arm thoroughly with soap and water

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct first action for the school nurse to take in this situation is to wash Child B’s arm thoroughly with soap and water. Washing the wound immediately is crucial to reduce the risk of infection from the bite. Applying antibiotic cream may come after cleaning the wound. Determining Child A's medical history or checking Child B's tetanus status is important but not the immediate priority when dealing with a bite wound.

5. Following rectal surgery, a female client is very anxious about the pain she may experience during defecation. The nurse should collaborate with the healthcare provider to administer which type of medication?

• A. Bulk-forming agent
• B. Antianxiety agent
• C. Stool softener
• D. Stimulant cathartic

Correct answer: C

Rationale: After rectal surgery, a stool softener is the most appropriate medication to help prevent pain and straining during defecation. Stool softeners work by increasing the water content of the stool, making it easier to pass without discomfort. Bulk-forming agents (Choice A) help add mass to the stool but may not address the immediate post-operative discomfort. Antianxiety agents (Choice B) would address the anxiety but not the physical discomfort. Stimulant cathartics (Choice D) are not recommended after rectal surgery as they can cause cramping and increased bowel movements, potentially exacerbating pain.

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