Nursing Elites

1. After a CT scan with intravenous contrast medium, a client returns to the room complaining of shortness of breath and itching. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Call respiratory therapy to administer a breathing treatment.
• B. Send for an emergency tracheostomy set.
• C. Prepare a dose of epinephrine.
• D. Review the client's complete list of allergies.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Preparing a dose of epinephrine is the correct intervention in this situation as the client is displaying symptoms of an anaphylactic reaction to the contrast medium used during the CT scan. Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis due to its ability to reverse the symptoms rapidly. Calling respiratory therapy for a breathing treatment (Choice A) may not address the underlying allergic reaction and delay appropriate treatment. Sending for an emergency tracheostomy set (Choice B) is not indicated as the client's symptoms suggest an allergic reaction rather than airway obstruction. Reviewing the client's complete list of allergies (Choice D) is important but would not provide immediate relief for the client's current symptoms; administering epinephrine takes precedence in this situation.

2. What is the most common clinical manifestation of coarctation of the aorta?

• A. Clubbing of the digits
• B. Upper extremity hypertension
• C. Pedal edema and portal congestion
• D. Loud systolic ejection murmur

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Upper extremity hypertension. Coarctation of the aorta leads to increased blood pressure in the upper extremities. The pressure in the arms is typically 20 mm Hg higher than in the legs. Choice A, clubbing of the digits, is not a common clinical manifestation of coarctation of the aorta. Choice C, pedal edema, and portal congestion are more suggestive of conditions like heart failure rather than coarctation of the aorta. Choice D, loud systolic ejection murmur, can be heard in conditions like aortic stenosis, but it is not the most common clinical manifestation of coarctation of the aorta.

3. Parents of a 6-month-old child, who has just been diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia, ask why it was not diagnosed earlier. What would be the best response by the nurse?

• A. Are you sure your child has iron deficiency anemia?
• B. This happens when the maternal stores of iron are depleted at about 6 months.
• C. This anemia is caused by blood loss.
• D. The child may not have had it for a long time.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best response by the nurse would be choice B: 'This happens when the maternal stores of iron are depleted at about 6 months.' Iron deficiency anemia becomes apparent at about 6 months of age in a full-term infant when the maternal stores of iron are depleted. Choice A is incorrect because it questions the diagnosis provided by the healthcare provider. Choice C is incorrect because iron deficiency anemia in infants is primarily due to insufficient iron intake rather than blood loss. Choice D is incorrect as iron deficiency anemia typically develops gradually due to inadequate iron intake.

4. What is the priority patient problem for the parents of a newborn born with cleft lip and palate?

• A. Parental role conflict
• B. Risk for delayed growth and development
• C. Risk for impaired attachment
• D. Anticipatory grieving

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Risk for impaired attachment. Parents of a newborn with cleft lip and palate may face challenges in bonding with their child due to the physical appearance, impacting attachment. Promoting bonding between parents and the infant is crucial in this situation. Choice A (Parental role conflict) is incorrect as it focuses on conflicting roles rather than the attachment issue. Choice B (Risk for delayed growth and development) is not the priority issue in this scenario as the immediate concern is establishing a healthy attachment. Choice D (Anticipatory grieving) is not the priority patient problem as it pertains more to the emotional response to an anticipated loss, which is not the primary concern at this stage.

5. The nurse assesses an adult male client 24 hours following abdominal surgery and finds that his blood pressure is 98/40 mm Hg, he is tachycardic, restless, and irritable. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Notify the healthcare provider of the findings.
• B. Ensure that the IV is infusing at the prescribed rate.
• C. Listen to lung sounds.
• D. Check under his back for evidence of bleeding.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should first check under the client for evidence of bleeding. A blood pressure of 98/40 mm Hg, along with tachycardia, restlessness, and irritability, could indicate internal hemorrhage following abdominal surgery. Checking for bleeding under the back is crucial to rule out this life-threatening complication. Notifying the healthcare provider, ensuring IV infusion, or listening to lung sounds can be important but are secondary to ruling out immediate life-threatening conditions like internal bleeding.

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