Nursing Elites

1. A teenaged client, a heroin addict, is admitted to the unit for detoxification. What intervention is most important for the nurse to initiate during the first 24 hours after admission?

• A. Assign the client to a teen support group.
• B. Assess intake and output.
• C. Monitor for wheezing and apnea.
• D. Limit visitors to family members only.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Assessing intake and output is crucial during the first 24 hours after admission for detoxification. This helps the nurse monitor the client's hydration status and kidney function as the body goes through withdrawal from heroin. Option A is incorrect because joining a support group is beneficial but may not be the priority in the initial phase of detoxification. Option C, monitoring for wheezing and apnea, is important but not the most critical intervention during the first 24 hours. Option D, limiting visitors to family members only, is not directly related to the immediate needs of assessing intake and output.

2. A male client with mental illness and substance dependency tells the mental health nurse that he has started using illegal drugs again and wants to seek treatment. Since he has a dual diagnosis, which person is best for the nurse to refer this client to first?

• A. The emergency room nurse.
• B. His case manager.
• C. The clinic healthcare provider.
• D. His support group sponsor.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The case manager (B) is responsible for coordinating community services, making them the best person to refer the client to first as they can describe available treatment options. The emergency room nurse (A) is unnecessary unless the client's behaviors pose imminent threats. The clinic healthcare provider (C) and support group sponsor (D) may be useful but coordinating a treatment program tailored to the client's needs is the priority in this scenario.

3. In the described scenario, a manic client threatens a nurse with physical violence after being told they cannot have a stripper perform. What is the most appropriate action for the LPN/LVN to take?

• A. Orient the client to time, person, and place
• B. Tell the client that the behavior is inappropriate
• C. Escort the manic client to her room, with assistance
• D. Tell the client that smoking privileges are revoked for 24 hours

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this situation, where the manic client becomes verbally abusive and threatens physical violence, the most appropriate action for the LPN/LVN is to escort the client to her room with assistance. This action helps ensure the safety of both the client and the nurse, while also providing a controlled environment that can help de-escalate the situation. Choices A and B do not address the immediate safety concerns presented by the client's behavior. Choice D, revoking smoking privileges, is not directly related to the client's current behavior and does not address the threat of violence.

4. The LPN/LVN is caring for a client who is experiencing alcohol withdrawal. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer a PRN dose of lorazepam (Ativan).
• B. Monitor the client's vital signs.
• C. Place the client on seizure precautions.
• D. Encourage the client to express feelings about withdrawal.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When caring for a client experiencing alcohol withdrawal, the first intervention the nurse should implement is to monitor the client's vital signs. Vital sign monitoring is crucial to assess for any potential complications such as hypertension, tachycardia, fever, or other signs of autonomic hyperactivity. Administering medication like lorazepam (Ativan) would come after assessing the vital signs to determine the need for pharmacological intervention. Placing the client on seizure precautions is important, but assessing vital signs takes precedence to ensure immediate safety. Encouraging the client to express feelings about withdrawal is a supportive intervention but does not address the immediate physiological risk associated with alcohol withdrawal.

5. A male client is admitted to the mental health unit because he was feeling depressed about the loss of his wife and job. The client has a history of alcohol dependency and admits that he was drinking alcohol 12 hours ago. Vital signs are: temperature, 100 F, pulse 100, and BP 142/100. The nurse plans to give the client lorazepam (Ativan) based on which priority nursing diagnosis?

• A. Risk for injury related to suicidal ideation.
• B. Risk for injury related to alcohol detoxification.
• C. Knowledge deficit related to ineffective coping.
• D. Health-seeking behaviors related to personal crisis.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important nursing diagnosis is related to alcohol detoxification (B) because the client has elevated vital signs, a sign of alcohol detoxification. Giving lorazepam (Ativan) to address the elevated vital signs due to alcohol withdrawal is a priority. Addressing the risk for injury related to suicidal ideation (A) should come after stabilizing the client's physiological state. Both (C) and (D) can be addressed once immediate safety needs are met, but the priority is managing the alcohol detoxification to prevent potential complications.

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