a client with a history of hypertension is prescribed a diuretiwhich of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effec
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Practice HESI Fundamentals Exam

1. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed a diuretic. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor serum potassium levels. When a client is prescribed a diuretic, monitoring serum potassium levels is essential to evaluate the medication's effectiveness and to detect potential electrolyte imbalances. Diuretics can cause potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia, which can have serious consequences such as cardiac arrhythmias. Monitoring serum calcium levels (Choice A) is not typically required when assessing the effectiveness of diuretics. Similarly, monitoring serum sodium levels (Choice C) is important for other conditions but is not the primary concern when evaluating diuretic therapy. Monitoring serum magnesium levels (Choice D) is also important, but potassium levels are more critical in assessing diuretic effectiveness and preventing complications.

2. When planning to insert a peripheral IV catheter for an older adult client, which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Placing the client's arm in a dependent position is the correct action when inserting a peripheral IV catheter for an older adult client. This position helps veins dilate due to gravity, facilitating easier insertion of the IV catheter. Choice A is incorrect because catheters are typically inserted at a lower angle, around 10-30 degrees. Choice C is unnecessary unless excessive hair impedes the insertion process. Choice D is incorrect as veins in the hand are generally smaller and more prone to complications, making them less ideal for IV therapy in older adults.

3. The healthcare provider is reviewing the signed operative consent with a client who is admitted for the removal of a lipoma on the left leg. The client states that the permit should include...

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the best course of action is to inform the surgeon about the client's concern. This action ensures that the surgeon is aware of the client's specific request or concern related to the procedure. By directly involving the surgeon, the client's preferences or needs can be addressed effectively, potentially avoiding any misunderstanding or dissatisfaction. Choice A has been corrected to 'Notify the surgeon of the client’s concern' as the operating room staff may not have the authority to make changes to the permit. Having the client sign a new surgical permit (Choice B) may not be necessary if the concern can be addressed by informing the surgeon, making Choice B less efficient. Adding the client’s concern to the permit (Choice C) without consulting the surgeon may not align with the standard procedure and could lead to confusion or legal issues if the surgeon is not aware of the client’s specific requests.

4. During the check-up of a 2-month-old infant at a well-baby clinic, the mother expresses concern to the nurse because a flat pink birthmark on the baby's forehead and eyelid has not gone away. What is an appropriate response by the nurse?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Telangiectatic nevi, often referred to as 'stork bites,' are common birthmarks in infants and are considered normal. These birthmarks usually fade and disappear as the child grows older. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because Mongolian spots are bluish-gray birthmarks commonly found in darker-skinned infants, port wine stains are vascular birthmarks that typically do not disappear, and surgical removal is not recommended for telangiectatic nevi as they usually resolve on their own.

5. A client is 1-day postoperative and reports a pain level of 10 on a scale of 0 to 10. After reviewing the client’s medication administration record, which of the following medications should be administered?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Morphine IV is the most appropriate choice for severe postoperative pain due to its rapid onset and effectiveness. Meperidine is not preferred due to its potential side effects, and fentanyl patches are typically used for chronic pain, not acute postoperative pain. Oxycodone taken orally is not ideal for providing immediate relief in this situation.

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