Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed a diuretic. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication?

• A. Monitor serum calcium levels.
• B. Monitor serum potassium levels.
• C. Monitor serum sodium levels.
• D. Monitor serum magnesium levels.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor serum potassium levels. When a client is prescribed a diuretic, monitoring serum potassium levels is essential to evaluate the medication's effectiveness and to detect potential electrolyte imbalances. Diuretics can cause potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia, which can have serious consequences such as cardiac arrhythmias. Monitoring serum calcium levels (Choice A) is not typically required when assessing the effectiveness of diuretics. Similarly, monitoring serum sodium levels (Choice C) is important for other conditions but is not the primary concern when evaluating diuretic therapy. Monitoring serum magnesium levels (Choice D) is also important, but potassium levels are more critical in assessing diuretic effectiveness and preventing complications.

2. Nurse talking with a client’s partner. She is having frustrations about managing responsibilities and care. What type of role performance stress is this?

• A. Role overload
• B. Role conflict
• C. Role ambiguity
• D. Role strain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Role overload occurs when a person feels overwhelmed by the demands placed upon them.

3. A client is admitted to the emergency room following an acute asthma attack. Which of the following assessments would be expected by the nurse?

• A. Diffuse expiratory wheezing
• B. Loose, productive cough
• C. No relief from inhaler
• D. Fever and chills

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During an acute asthma attack, one of the expected assessments by the nurse would be diffuse expiratory wheezing. This occurs due to narrowed airways and increased airflow velocity. Choice B, a loose productive cough, is not typically associated with an asthma attack. Choice C, no relief from inhaler, may indicate ineffective treatment but is not a direct assessment finding related to the physical examination. Choice D, fever and chills, are not typical symptoms of an asthma attack and would not be expected findings during the initial assessment of an acute asthma attack.

4. Before digital removal of a fecal impaction, which type of enema should the nurse give to loosen the feces?

• A. Oil Retention
• B. Saline
• C. Soapy Water
• D. Hypertonic

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An oil retention enema containing mineral oil is the most suitable choice to help soften and loosen a fecal impaction before digital removal. Mineral oil lubricates and softens the stool, facilitating passage. Saline enemas draw water into the colon to promote bowel movements but may not effectively soften a fecal impaction. Soapy water enemas are primarily for cleansing, not softening stool. Hypertonic enemas eliminate fluid from the body and are not appropriate for loosening fecal impactions.

5. During an abdominal examination, a nurse in a provider’s office determines that a client has abdominal distention. The protrusion is at midline, the skin over the area is taut, and the nurse notes no involvement of the flanks. Which of the following possible causes of distention should the nurse suspect?

• A. Fat
• B. Fluid
• C. Flatus
• D. Hernias

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Hernias.' Abdominal distention with a midline protrusion, taut skin, and no involvement of the flanks is characteristic of hernias. Hernias are caused by a weakness in the abdominal wall, allowing organs or tissues to protrude through. Fluid accumulation (ascites) typically presents with a more generalized distention, while fat accumulation may cause more diffuse distension rather than a focal midline protrusion. Flatus, or gas, would not typically present with a visible midline protrusion and taut skin like hernias.

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