Nursing Elites

1. If a security officer is reviewing actions to take in the event of a bomb threat by phone to a group of nurses, which statement by a nurse indicates understanding?

• A. “I will get the caller off the phone as soon as possible so I can alert the staff.”
• B. “I will begin evacuating clients using the elevators.”
• C. “I will not ask any questions and just let the caller talk.”
• D. “I will listen for background noises.”

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: “I will listen for background noises.” Listening for background noises can provide useful information about the bomb’s location, helping security to assess the situation more effectively. Choice A is incorrect because disconnecting the call abruptly may prevent gathering important details. Choice B is incorrect as using elevators during a bomb threat can be dangerous; it is safer to use stairs for evacuation. Choice C is incorrect because actively engaging with the caller to gather information is crucial in bomb threat situations.

2. The nurse is caring for a client with a tracheostomy who is unable to clear secretions by coughing. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?

• A. Encourage the client to take deep breaths.
• B. Provide humidified oxygen via tracheostomy collar.
• C. Suction the tracheostomy tube as needed.
• D. Change the tracheostomy dressing daily.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Suctioning the tracheostomy tube as needed is the most appropriate action in this scenario. When a client with a tracheostomy is unable to clear secretions by coughing, suctioning helps remove the excess secretions from the airway, ensuring proper breathing. Encouraging deep breaths (Choice A) may not effectively address the immediate need to clear secretions. Providing humidified oxygen (Choice B) can help with oxygenation but does not directly address the issue of clearing secretions. Changing the tracheostomy dressing daily (Choice D) is important for maintaining cleanliness but is not the priority when the client is unable to clear secretions.

3. When reviewing a client’s fluid and electrolyte status, what should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Potassium 5.4
• B. Sodium 140
• C. Calcium 8.6
• D. Magnesium 2.0

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Potassium 5.4'. A potassium level of 5.4 is elevated (normal range is typically 3.5-5.0 mEq/L) and may indicate hyperkalemia, which can have serious cardiac implications. Elevated potassium levels can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias, so immediate reporting and intervention are necessary. Choice B, 'Sodium 140', falls within the normal range (135-145 mEq/L) and does not require immediate reporting. Choice C, 'Calcium 8.6', falls within the normal range (8.5-10.5 mg/dL) and is not an immediate concern. Choice D, 'Magnesium 2.0', is within the normal range (1.5-2.5 mEq/L) and does not need urgent reporting. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize reporting the elevated potassium level as it poses the most immediate risk.

4. An older adult client at risk for osteoporosis is being taught by a nurse about starting a regular physical activity program. Which type of activity should the nurse recommend?

• A. Walking briskly
• B. Riding a bicycle
• C. Performing isometric exercises
• D. Engaging in high-impact aerobics

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is walking briskly. Weight-bearing exercises, such as brisk walking, are recommended for individuals at risk for osteoporosis because they help maintain bone mass and prevent bone loss. Riding a bicycle and performing isometric exercises are not weight-bearing activities, and therefore, may not provide the same bone-strengthening benefits as walking. High-impact aerobics can increase the risk of fractures in individuals with osteoporosis due to the high level of impact involved.

5. The LPN/LVN is assisting with the care of a client who has just had a liver biopsy. What position should the nurse place the client in immediately following the procedure?

• A. Supine with the right arm raised above the head
• B. Supine with the head of the bed elevated
• C. Right side-lying with a pillow under the costal margin
• D. Left side-lying with the head of the bed flat

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct position for a client immediately following a liver biopsy is right side-lying with a pillow under the costal margin. This position helps prevent bleeding by applying pressure to the biopsy site. Placing the client supine with the right arm raised above the head (Choice A) or supine with the head of the bed elevated (Choice B) are not ideal positions for post-liver biopsy care as they do not provide the necessary pressure to the biopsy site. Left side-lying with the head of the bed flat (Choice D) is also not recommended as it does not assist in preventing bleeding after a liver biopsy.

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