Nursing Elites

1. If a security officer is reviewing actions to take in the event of a bomb threat by phone to a group of nurses, which statement by a nurse indicates understanding?

• A. “I will get the caller off the phone as soon as possible so I can alert the staff.”
• B. “I will begin evacuating clients using the elevators.”
• C. “I will not ask any questions and just let the caller talk.”
• D. “I will listen for background noises.”

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: “I will listen for background noises.” Listening for background noises can provide useful information about the bomb’s location, helping security to assess the situation more effectively. Choice A is incorrect because disconnecting the call abruptly may prevent gathering important details. Choice B is incorrect as using elevators during a bomb threat can be dangerous; it is safer to use stairs for evacuation. Choice C is incorrect because actively engaging with the caller to gather information is crucial in bomb threat situations.

2. When evaluating the effectiveness of a client's nursing care, the nurse first reviews the expected outcomes identified in the plan of care. What action should the nurse take next?

• A. Determine if the expected outcomes were realistic
• B. Obtain current client data to compare with expected outcomes
• C. Modify the nursing interventions to achieve the client's goals
• D. Review related professional standards of care

Correct answer: B

Rationale: After reviewing the expected outcomes in the plan of care, the nurse should obtain current client data to compare with these outcomes. This step is crucial in determining the effectiveness of the care provided. Choice A is incorrect because determining the realism of expected outcomes comes after assessing current client data. Choice C is incorrect as modifying nursing interventions should be based on the data comparison rather than done immediately after reviewing expected outcomes. Choice D is also incorrect as reviewing professional standards of care is important but not the immediate next step in evaluating care effectiveness.

3. During a blood transfusion, which observation indicates that the client is experiencing a transfusion reaction?

• A. The client reports feeling warm and flushed.
• B. The client develops a rash on the chest and back.
• C. The client experiences chills and a fever.
• D. The client complains of back pain and shortness of breath.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Complaints of back pain and shortness of breath are classic signs of a transfusion reaction, specifically indicating a hemolytic reaction. This reaction can lead to the release of hemoglobin into the bloodstream, causing back pain and shortness of breath due to clot formation in the blood vessels, leading to decreased oxygen delivery. Warmth, flushing, rash, chills, and fever are more commonly associated with allergic reactions or febrile non-hemolytic reactions during transfusions. Therefore, options A, B, and C are incorrect in this context.

4. A healthcare professional is caring for a client with a chest tube. Which observation requires immediate intervention?

• A. Constant bubbling in the suction control chamber
• B. Intermittent bubbling in the water seal chamber
• C. Drainage of 50 ml per hour
• D. Crepitus around the insertion site

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Crepitus around the chest tube insertion site may indicate subcutaneous emphysema, a serious condition that requires immediate attention. It can be a sign of an air leak in the lung or surrounding tissues. Constant bubbling in the suction control chamber is expected in a functioning chest tube system as it indicates proper suction. Intermittent bubbling in the water seal chamber is also normal, showing that the system is functioning correctly, allowing air to escape but not re-enter. Drainage of 50 ml per hour is within the expected range for chest tube output and does not require immediate intervention unless there are other concerning signs such as rapid increase or a sudden change in color or consistency.

5. When reviewing EBP about the administration of O2 therapy, what is the recommended maximum flow rate for regulating O2 via nasal cannula?

• A. Regulate O2 via nasal cannula no more than 6L
• B. Regulate O2 via nasal cannula no more than 2L
• C. Regulate O2 via nasal cannula no more than 4L
• D. Regulate O2 via nasal cannula no more than 8L

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to regulate O2 via nasal cannula no more than 6L. This flow rate is generally recommended to ensure adequate oxygen delivery without causing discomfort or potential harm to the patient. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they suggest flow rates that are either too low (2L, 4L) or too high (8L). A flow rate of 2L might not provide sufficient oxygen, while 4L could be inadequate for some patients. On the other hand, a flow rate of 8L could be excessive and potentially harmful, leading to complications like oxygen toxicity. Therefore, the optimal recommendation is to regulate O2 via nasal cannula at a maximum of 6L to balance effectiveness and safety.

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