HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Exam
1. If a security officer is reviewing actions to take in the event of a bomb threat by phone to a group of nurses, which statement by a nurse indicates understanding?
- A. “I will get the caller off the phone as soon as possible so I can alert the staff.”
- B. “I will begin evacuating clients using the elevators.”
- C. “I will not ask any questions and just let the caller talk.”
- D. “I will listen for background noises.”
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: “I will listen for background noises.” Listening for background noises can provide useful information about the bomb’s location, helping security to assess the situation more effectively. Choice A is incorrect because disconnecting the call abruptly may prevent gathering important details. Choice B is incorrect as using elevators during a bomb threat can be dangerous; it is safer to use stairs for evacuation. Choice C is incorrect because actively engaging with the caller to gather information is crucial in bomb threat situations.
2. A female client with borderline personality disorder is being discharged today. During morning rounds, the client complains about the aloofness of the night shift nurse and expresses joy to see the nurse on duty. Which response is best for the nurse to provide to this client’s dichotomous tendency?
- A. I am glad you like me. Which nurse was acting aloof to you?
- B. Tomorrow I will talk to that nurse about how you were treated last night.
- C. What did the night nurse do that makes you think she is aloof?
- D. I am happy that you are getting better and will be able to go home.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Choice A is the best response as it acknowledges the client's feelings while exploring their concerns. By asking which nurse was acting aloof, the nurse shows understanding and allows the client to express their feelings further. This response validates the client's emotions and fosters a therapeutic relationship. Choice B focuses on a future action without addressing the immediate concern at hand. Choice C seeks clarification on the night nurse's behavior, which is a good approach but lacks the personal touch of Choice A. Choice D shifts the focus away from the client's current feelings and concerns, missing the opportunity to address the dichotomous thinking displayed by the client.
3. Certain health policies/strategies serve as guidelines in the delivery of services. Which of these is incorrect?
- A. A growth monitoring chart is a tool recommended for assessing and recording the child's health condition.
- B. Voluntary blood donation should be promoted through the organization of walking blood banks in rural areas.
- C. Public sectors should collaborate with the private sector for effective utilization of resources.
- D. Traditional birth attendants should be trained and allowed to provide prenatal care to mothers.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Choice C is incorrect because public sectors are encouraged to collaborate with the private sector for effective utilization of resources, not work separately. Collaborating with the private sector can lead to improved resource allocation, better service delivery, and enhanced healthcare outcomes. Choices A, B, and D are correct as growth monitoring charts are indeed recommended for assessing child health, promoting voluntary blood donation through walking blood banks is beneficial, and training traditional birth attendants to provide prenatal care can improve maternal health.
4. The LPN/LVN mixes 50 mg of Nipride in 250 ml of D5W and plans to administer the solution at a rate of 5 mcg/kg/min to a client weighing 182 pounds. Using a drip factor of 60 gtt/ml, how many drops per minute should the client receive?
- A. 31 gtt/min.
- B. 62 gtt/min.
- C. 93 gtt/min.
- D. 124 gtt/min.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: To calculate the drops per minute for the client, first, convert the weight from pounds to kilograms by dividing 182 by 2.2, which equals 82.72 kg. Then, calculate the dose in mcg/min by multiplying the weight in kg by the rate (82.72 kg * 5 mcg/kg/min = 413.6 mcg/min). Next, convert 50 mg to mcg (50 mg * 1000 = 50,000 mcg). Divide the total mcg (50,000 mcg) by the dose per minute (413.6 mcg/min) to get approximately 121 gtt/min. However, since the drip factor is 60 gtt/ml, the correct answer is 124 gtt/min, ensuring the accurate administration rate of the medication. Therefore, choice 'D' is the correct answer. Choices 'A', 'B', and 'C' are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the calculated drops per minute based on the given information.
5. What most influences the severity of respiratory distress syndrome (RDS)?
- A. Poor cough and gag reflex
- B. The gestational age at birth
- C. Administering high concentrations of oxygen
- D. The sex of the infant
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The gestational age at birth most influences the severity of respiratory distress syndrome (RDS). RDS is caused by a deficiency of surfactant and it occurs almost exclusively in preterm, low-birth weight infants. Therefore, the gestational age at birth is a key factor in determining the likelihood and severity of RDS. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the primary factor influencing the severity of RDS.