a 16 year old client is admitted to a psychiatric unit with a diagnosis of attempted suicide the nurse is aware that the most frequent cause for suici

NCLEX-RN

NCLEX RN Practice Questions Exam Cram

1. What is the most frequent cause for suicide in adolescents?

A. Progressive failure to adapt
B. Feelings of anger or hostility
C. Reunion wish or fantasy
D. Feelings of alienation or isolation

Correct answer: D: Feelings of alienation or isolation

Rationale: Feelings of alienation or isolation are the most frequent cause for suicide in adolescents. Adolescents may experience a gradual isolation leading to a loss of meaningful social contacts, which can be self-imposed or result from an inability to express feelings. During this developmental stage, achieving a sense of identity and peer acceptance is crucial. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect: Progressive failure to adapt, feelings of anger or hostility, and reunion wish or fantasy are not typically identified as the primary cause of suicide in adolescents.

2. After performing an assessment of an infant with bladder exstrophy, the nurse prepares a plan of care. The nurse identifies which problem as the priority for the infant?

A. Urinary incontinence
B. Impaired tissue integrity
C. Inability to suck and swallow
D. Lack of knowledge about the disease (parents)

Correct answer: Impaired tissue integrity

Rationale: In bladder exstrophy, the bladder is exposed and external to the body, leading to impaired tissue integrity related to the exposed bladder mucosa as the priority problem. Urinary incontinence is not a concern as the infant is not yet toilet trained. Inability to suck and swallow is unrelated to the disorder. While educating the parents about the condition is important, it is not the priority over addressing the immediate risk of impaired tissue integrity in the infant.

3. A 3-year-old child was brought to the pediatric clinic after the sudden onset of findings that include irritability, thick muffled voice, croaking on inspiration, being hot to the touch, sitting leaning forward, tongue protruding, drooling, and suprasternal retractions. What should the nurse do first?

A. Prepare the child for an X-ray of the upper airways
B. Examine the child’s throat
C. Collect a sputum specimen
D. Notify the healthcare provider of the child’s status

Correct answer: D: Notify the healthcare provider of the child’s status

Rationale: The correct initial action is to notify the healthcare provider of the child's status. The presenting symptoms described, such as irritability, thick muffled voice, croaking on inspiration, being hot to the touch, sitting leaning forward, tongue protruding, drooling, and suprasternal retractions, are indicative of epiglottitis, a potentially life-threatening condition. Immediate medical attention is crucial in such cases. While preparing for an X-ray or examining the throat may be necessary, the priority is to ensure prompt evaluation and intervention by the healthcare provider. Collecting a sputum specimen is not relevant in this situation and would cause unnecessary delay. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize communication with the healthcare provider to expedite appropriate management and treatment.

4. The nurse assesses a patient suspected of having meningitis. Which of the following is a common clinical manifestation of this condition?

A. A high WBC count and decreased level of consciousness
B. A high WBC count and manic activity
C. A low WBC count and manic activity
D. A low WBC count and decreased level of consciousness

Correct answer: A high WBC count and decreased level of consciousness

Rationale: The correct answer is 'A high WBC count and decreased level of consciousness.' Meningitis is often caused by an infectious organism, leading to an increase in Intracranial Pressure (ICP), which can result in decreased level of consciousness. While meningitis can trigger an inflammatory response, it typically presents with an elevated white blood cell (WBC) count rather than a low WBC count. Manic activity is not a common clinical manifestation of meningitis; instead, patients may exhibit altered mental status, confusion, or lethargy.

5. A 28-year-old male has been found wandering around in a confusing pattern. The male is sweaty and pale. Which of the following tests is most likely to be performed first?

A. Blood sugar check
B. CT scan
C. Blood cultures
D. Arterial blood gases

Correct answer: Blood sugar check

Rationale: In a 28-year-old male presenting with confusion, sweating, and pallor, the most likely cause is hypoglycemia, especially with no mention of trauma or infection. Therefore, the initial test to be performed should be a blood sugar check to rule out low blood sugar levels. Checking blood sugar levels is crucial in such a scenario as hypoglycemia can lead to altered mental status. A CT scan (choice B) is not typically the initial test for altered mental status without any focal neurological signs or head trauma. Blood cultures (choice C) are more relevant in cases suspected of infection, which is not a primary concern in this scenario. Arterial blood gases (choice D) may be considered later if there are concerns about respiratory status or acid-base disturbances, but in this case, checking the blood sugar level is the most immediate and appropriate action.