a premature infant with respiratory distress syndrome rds receives artificial surfactant how does the nurse explain surfactant therapy to the parents

HESI LPN

Maternity HESI Practice Questions

1. A premature infant with respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) receives artificial surfactant. How does the nurse explain surfactant therapy to the parents?

A. “Surfactant improves the ability of your baby’s lungs to exchange oxygen and carbon dioxide.”
B. “The drug keeps your baby from requiring too much sedation.”
C. “Surfactant is used to reduce episodes of periodic apnea.”
D. “Your baby needs this medication to fight a possible respiratory tract infection.”

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Artificial surfactant can be administered as an adjunct to oxygen and ventilation therapy for premature infants with respiratory distress syndrome (RDS). It helps improve respiratory compliance by aiding in the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide until the infant can produce enough surfactant naturally. The correct explanation to the parents would be that surfactant therapy enhances the baby’s lung function by facilitating the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide. Choice B is incorrect because surfactant therapy does not affect sedation needs. Choice C is inaccurate as surfactant is not used to reduce episodes of periodic apnea. Choice D is incorrect as surfactant is not administered to fight respiratory tract infections; it specifically targets improving lung function in RDS.

2. What is the structure of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)?

A. single spiral
B. double helix
C. sphere
D. cube

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: double helix. DNA is structured as a double helix, resembling a twisted ladder made up of two strands of nucleotides. Choice A, single spiral, is incorrect as DNA is not a single spiral structure. Choice C, sphere, is incorrect as DNA does not form a spherical shape. Choice D, cube, is incorrect as DNA does not have a cubic structure. Understanding the double helix structure of DNA is essential as it allows for the storage and transmission of genetic information in living organisms.

3. Which of the following statements is true of sickle-cell anemia?

A. It is typically managed with treatments such as pain relief medications.
B. It is caused by a mutation in the beta-globin gene.
C. It leads to the obstruction of small blood vessels and decreased oxygen delivery.
D. It is more prevalent in individuals of African, Mediterranean, Middle Eastern, and Indian descent.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Sickle-cell anemia results from a mutation in the beta-globin gene, causing red blood cells to become sickle-shaped. These misshapen cells can obstruct small blood vessels, leading to reduced oxygen delivery to tissues. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because sickle-cell anemia is typically managed with treatments such as pain relief medications, hydration, and in severe cases, blood transfusions. It is caused by a specific mutation in the beta-globin gene, not by the inability to metabolize phenylalanine. Additionally, sickle-cell anemia is more prevalent in individuals of African, Mediterranean, Middle Eastern, and Indian descent, not exclusive to any specific gender.

4. A healthcare provider is assessing a preterm newborn who is at 32 weeks of gestation. Which of the following finding should the healthcare provider expect?

A. Minimal arm recoil
B. Popliteal angle of less than 90°
C. Creases over the entire sole
D. Sparse lanugo

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing a preterm newborn at 32 weeks of gestation, healthcare providers should expect minimal arm recoil. This finding is common in preterm infants due to lower muscle tone. Choice B, a popliteal angle of less than 90°, is incorrect for this age group. Creases over the entire sole (Choice C) typically develop at term age, not at 32 weeks of gestation. Sparse lanugo (Choice D) is a normal finding in preterm infants but is not specific to those at 32 weeks of gestation.

5. A client has bacterial vaginosis. Which of the following medications should the nurse expect to administer?

A. Metronidazole
B. Fluconazole
C. Acyclovir
D. Clindamycin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Metronidazole is the correct choice for treating bacterial vaginosis as it is the first-line medication recommended for this condition. Metronidazole works by disrupting the DNA structure of bacteria, making it an effective treatment. Choice B, Fluconazole, is an antifungal medication primarily used for treating fungal infections, not bacterial vaginosis. Choice C, Acyclovir, is an antiviral medication used to treat viral infections, not bacterial vaginosis. Choice D, Clindamycin, is also used to treat bacterial infections but is not the first-line treatment for bacterial vaginosis, making it an incorrect choice in this scenario.