HESI LPN
Maternity HESI Practice Questions
1. A premature infant with respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) receives artificial surfactant. How does the nurse explain surfactant therapy to the parents?
- A. “Surfactant improves the ability of your baby’s lungs to exchange oxygen and carbon dioxide.”
- B. “The drug keeps your baby from requiring too much sedation.”
- C. “Surfactant is used to reduce episodes of periodic apnea.”
- D. “Your baby needs this medication to fight a possible respiratory tract infection.”
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Artificial surfactant can be administered as an adjunct to oxygen and ventilation therapy for premature infants with respiratory distress syndrome (RDS). It helps improve respiratory compliance by aiding in the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide until the infant can produce enough surfactant naturally. The correct explanation to the parents would be that surfactant therapy enhances the baby’s lung function by facilitating the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide. Choice B is incorrect because surfactant therapy does not affect sedation needs. Choice C is inaccurate as surfactant is not used to reduce episodes of periodic apnea. Choice D is incorrect as surfactant is not administered to fight respiratory tract infections; it specifically targets improving lung function in RDS.
2. After mitosis, the genetic code is identical in new cells unless _________ occur through radiation or other environmental influences.
- A. reductions
- B. expulsions
- C. conceptions
- D. mutations
Correct answer: D
Rationale: After mitosis, the genetic code is typically preserved and remains identical in the new cells. However, mutations can occur due to radiation or environmental influences, leading to changes in the DNA sequence and potentially altering the genetic code. Therefore, the correct answer is 'mutations.' Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because reductions, expulsions, and conceptions do not accurately describe the changes in the genetic code that can result from external factors. Mutations are the only option that reflects the alteration in the genetic code caused by external influences, making it the correct choice in this context.
3. A multiparous woman has been in labor for 8 hours. Her membranes have just ruptured. What is the nurse’s highest priority in this situation?
- A. Prepare the woman for imminent birth.
- B. Notify the woman’s primary healthcare provider.
- C. Document the characteristics of the fluid.
- D. Assess the fetal heart rate (FHR) and pattern.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to assess the fetal heart rate (FHR) and pattern (Choice D). When a multiparous woman's membranes rupture after 8 hours of labor, the nurse's priority is to assess the fetal well-being. Rupture of membranes can lead to potential complications such as umbilical cord prolapse. Monitoring the fetal heart rate and pattern immediately after the rupture of membranes is crucial to ensure the fetus is not in distress. This assessment helps in determining the need for immediate interventions to safeguard the fetus. Documenting the characteristics of the fluid (Choice C) may be necessary but is of lower priority compared to assessing fetal well-being. While preparing the woman for imminent birth (Choice A) is important, assessing the fetal heart rate takes precedence to ensure the fetus is not compromised. Notifying the woman's primary healthcare provider (Choice B) is also important but not the highest priority at this moment.
4. A woman with gestational diabetes has had little or no experience reading and interpreting glucose levels. The client shows the nurse her readings for the past few days. Which reading signals the nurse that the client may require an adjustment of insulin or carbohydrates?
- A. 75 mg/dl before lunch. This is low; better eat now.
- B. 115 mg/dl 1 hour after lunch. This is a little high; maybe eat a little less next time.
- C. 115 mg/dl 2 hours after lunch. This is too high; it is time for insulin.
- D. 50 mg/dl just after waking up from a nap. This is too low; maybe eat a snack before going to sleep.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: 50 mg/dl after waking from a nap is too low. During hours of sleep, glucose levels should not be less than 60 mg/dl. Snacks before sleeping can be helpful. The premeal acceptable range is 60 to 99 mg/dl. The readings 1 hour after a meal should be less than 129 mg/dl. Two hours after eating, the readings should be less than 120 mg/dl.
5. Monozygotic (MZ) twins are known as fraternal twins.
- A. TRUE
- B. FALSE
- C. Possibly
- D. Never
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'FALSE.' Monozygotic (MZ) twins are identical twins, not fraternal. Fraternal twins are dizygotic (DZ). The statement in the question is incorrect as MZ twins are genetically identical, while fraternal twins actually refer to dizygotic twins who develop from two separate fertilized eggs. Therefore, monozygotic twins are not known as fraternal twins, making option B the correct choice. Options A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately describe the relationship between monozygotic and fraternal twins.
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