HESI LPN
HESI Fundamental Practice Exam
1. A postoperative client will need to perform daily dressing changes after discharge. Which outcome statement best demonstrates the client's readiness to manage his wound care after discharge?
- A. Asks relevant questions regarding the dressing change.
- B. States he will be able to complete the wound care regimen.
- C. Demonstrates the wound care procedure correctly.
- D. Has all the necessary supplies for wound care.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Demonstrating the wound care procedure correctly indicates the client's readiness to independently manage wound care. This action shows practical understanding and application of the necessary skills. Choice A, asking relevant questions, is important but does not directly demonstrate the ability to perform the procedure. Choice B, stating the ability to complete the regimen, is a good intention but does not confirm practical competence. Choice D, having necessary supplies, is essential but does not ensure the client's ability to execute proper wound care.
2. A client has pharyngeal diphtheria. What transmission precautions are necessary?
- A. Droplet
- B. Contact
- C. Airborne
- D. Standard
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Pharyngeal diphtheria is primarily spread through droplet transmission, which occurs when an infected person coughs, sneezes, or talks, releasing respiratory droplets containing the bacteria. Therefore, the correct precaution for caring for a client with pharyngeal diphtheria is droplet precautions. Droplet precautions help prevent the transmission of respiratory pathogens over short distances via respiratory droplets. Contact precautions are used for diseases spread through direct or indirect contact with the patient or their environment. Airborne precautions are used for diseases that spread through small droplets suspended in the air. Standard precautions are basic infection prevention practices applying to all patient care.
3. When assessing the skin of an immobilized patient, what should the nurse do?
- A. Assess the skin every 4 hours.
- B. Limit the amount of fluid intake.
- C. Use a standardized tool such as the Braden Scale.
- D. Have special times for inspection to not interrupt routine care.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When assessing the skin of an immobilized patient, it is essential to use a standardized tool like the Braden Scale. This tool helps in systematically evaluating the patient's risk of developing pressure ulcers. Assessing the skin every 4 hours (Choice A) may be too frequent or unnecessary unless there are specific concerns or orders. Limiting fluid intake (Choice B) is not directly related to skin assessment in an immobilized patient. Having special times for inspection to avoid interrupting routine care (Choice D) is not as crucial as using a standardized tool for consistent and comprehensive skin assessment.
4. A nurse receives a report about a client receiving IV fluids infusing at 125 mL/hr but notes they have only received 80 mL over the last 2 hours. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Check IV tubing for obstruction
- B. Increase the flow rate
- C. Change the IV site
- D. Notify the physician
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take is to check the IV tubing for obstruction. This step is crucial in ensuring that the IV fluids are flowing properly and that there are no blockages preventing the correct infusion rate. Increasing the flow rate (Choice B) without confirming the tubing's status could lead to potential complications if there is indeed an obstruction. Changing the IV site (Choice C) is not the priority in this situation unless there are specific clinical indications. Notifying the physician (Choice D) can be done after checking the tubing for obstruction, as the physician may need to be informed depending on the findings.
5. The healthcare provider is caring for a 17-month-old with acetaminophen poisoning. Which lab reports should the healthcare provider review first?
- A. Prothrombin time (PT) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
- B. Red blood cell and white blood cell counts
- C. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels
- D. Liver enzymes (AST and ALT)
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In acetaminophen poisoning, liver damage is a significant concern due to the toxic effects of the drug on the liver. Liver enzymes such as AST (aspartate aminotransferase) and ALT (alanine aminotransferase) are essential markers to assess liver function and damage. Monitoring these enzymes early is crucial to detect hepatotoxicity and guide further management. Prothrombin time and partial thromboplastin time are coagulation studies and are not the priority in acetaminophen poisoning. Red and white blood cell counts are not specific to assess liver damage in this context. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels are primarily used to evaluate kidney function, which is not the primary concern in acetaminophen poisoning.
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