Nursing Elites

1. How can the LPN/LVN best handle the situation of a postoperative client being kept awake by a neighboring client with dementia who sings all night?

• A. Tell the neighboring client to stop singing.
• B. Close the doors to both clients' rooms at night.
• C. Give the complaining client the prescribed sedative as needed.
• D. Move the neighboring client to a room at the end of the hall.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best way to handle the situation in this scenario is to move the neighboring client to a room at the end of the hall. This solution is considerate to both clients because it addresses the issue by providing a quieter environment for the client with dementia while allowing the postoperative client to rest. Choice A is inappropriate as it does not address the root cause of the problem and may not be feasible or respectful. Choice B of closing the doors may not effectively reduce the noise disturbance. Choice C of giving the complaining client sedatives should be the last resort and not the initial solution, as it does not address the underlying issue causing the disturbance.

2. Postoperative client with fluid volume deficit. Which change indicates successful treatment?

• A. Decrease in heart rate
• B. Increase in blood pressure
• C. Decrease in respiratory rate
• D. Increase in urine output

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A decrease in heart rate can indicate improved fluid balance and successful treatment of fluid volume deficit. When a client is experiencing fluid volume deficit, the heart rate typically increases as a compensatory mechanism to maintain cardiac output. As fluid volume is restored and the deficit is corrected, the heart rate should decrease back towards a normal range. Choices B, C, and D are less likely to be directly related to the successful treatment of fluid volume deficit. An increase in blood pressure may occur as a compensatory response to fluid volume deficit; a decrease in respiratory rate is not a typical indicator of fluid volume deficit correction; and an increase in urine output can be a sign of improved kidney function but may not directly reflect fluid volume status.

3. A healthcare professional is admitting a client who has influenza. Which of the following types of transmission precautions should the healthcare professional initiate?

• A. Airborne
• B. Droplet
• C. Contact
• D. Protective environment

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Droplet precautions should be initiated for clients with infections that spread via droplet nuclei larger than 5 microns in diameter, such as influenza, rubella, meningococcal pneumonia, and streptococcal pharyngitis. In the case of influenza, the virus is primarily spread through respiratory droplets produced when an infected person coughs, sneezes, or talks. Airborne precautions are used for pathogens that remain infectious over long distances, typically smaller than 5 microns, like tuberculosis. Contact precautions are for diseases transmitted by direct or indirect contact, and protective environment precautions are for immunocompromised individuals to protect them from environmental pathogens.

4. In planning care for a premature infant with respiratory distress syndrome, nursing actions are based on the fact that the most likely cause of this problem stems from the infant's inability to

• A. Stabilize alveolar surface tension
• B. Maintain alveolar surface tension
• C. Promote normal pulmonary blood flow
• D. Regulate intra-cardiac pressure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Maintain alveolar surface tension. Respiratory distress syndrome in premature infants is often caused by a deficiency in surfactant, a substance that helps maintain alveolar surface tension. Without adequate surfactant, the alveoli collapse, making it difficult for the infant to oxygenate effectively. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because stabilizing alveolar surface tension is not the issue, promoting normal pulmonary blood flow and regulating intra-cardiac pressure are not directly related to the pathophysiology of respiratory distress syndrome in premature infants.

5. The healthcare provider prescribes furosemide (Lasix) 15 mg IV stat. On hand is Lasix 20 mg/2 ml. How many milliliters should the LPN/LVN administer?

• A. 1 ml.
• B. 1.5 ml.
• C. 1.75 ml.
• D. 2 ml.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the correct dose of 15 mg, the LPN/LVN should administer 1.5 ml of Lasix (20 mg/2 ml). This calculation ensures precise dosing. Choice A (1 ml) is too low and would provide only 10 mg, while choice C (1.75 ml) and choice D (2 ml) would exceed the prescribed dose, resulting in potential adverse effects. It is important for the LPN/LVN to administer the exact prescribed dose to ensure therapeutic efficacy and avoid unnecessary complications.

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