Nursing Elites

1. A client scheduled for arthroplasty expresses concern about the risk of acquiring an infection from a blood transfusion. Which of the following statements should the nurse make to the client?

• A. Donate autologous blood before the surgery
• B. Request a specific blood type from the donor
• C. Use blood from a family member
• D. Accept allogeneic blood without concerns

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct statement for the nurse to make to the client is to 'Donate autologous blood before the surgery.' Autologous blood donation involves collecting and storing the client's own blood for potential use during surgery, which significantly reduces the risk of transfusion-related infections. This option directly addresses the client's concern about infection risk. Requesting a specific blood type from a donor (Choice B) is not as effective in reducing infection risk compared to autologous blood donation. Using blood from a family member (Choice C) carries the risk of transfusion reactions and infections due to compatibility issues. Accepting allogeneic blood without concerns (Choice D) does not address the client's specific concern about infection risk and is not the most appropriate option in this situation.

2. A provider prescribes cold application for a client who reports ankle joint stiffness. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse identify as a contraindication to the application of cold?

• A. Capillary refill of 4 seconds
• B. 7.5 cm (3 in) diameter bruise on the ankle
• C. Warts on the affected ankle
• D. 2+ pitting edema

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Capillary refill of 4 seconds indicates poor circulation, which is a contraindication to cold application as it could worsen the condition by further reducing blood flow. Choice B, a 7.5 cm (3 in) diameter bruise on the ankle, does not directly contraindicate cold application but may need evaluation for possible underlying injuries. Choice C, warts on the affected ankle, do not necessarily contraindicate cold application. Choice D, 2+ pitting edema, is not a direct contraindication to cold application but may need to be addressed separately.

3. A client with chronic renal failure selects scrambled eggs for breakfast. What action should the LPN/LVN take?

• A. Commend the client for selecting a high biological value protein.
• B. Remind the client that protein in the diet should be avoided.
• C. Suggest that the client also select orange juice to promote absorption.
• D. Encourage the client to attend classes on dietary management of chronic renal failure.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action is to commend the client for selecting a high biological value protein, as scrambled eggs provide a good protein source for clients with chronic renal failure. Protein is essential for maintaining muscle mass and overall health in these clients. Reminding the client to avoid protein is incorrect as it may lead to protein-energy malnutrition, which is a common concern in chronic renal failure. Suggesting orange juice for absorption is not relevant to the situation, as protein absorption is not a primary concern in this context. Encouraging the client to attend classes on dietary management of chronic renal failure is important for overall education but is not the immediate action needed in response to the client's breakfast choice.

4. A client is in the radiology department at 0900 when the prescription levofloxacin (Levaquin) 500 mg IV q24h is scheduled to be administered. The client returns to the unit at 1300. What is the best intervention for the LPN/LVN to implement?

• A. Contact the healthcare provider and complete a medication variance form.
• B. Administer the Levaquin at 1300 and resume the 0900 schedule the next morning.
• C. Notify the charge nurse and complete an incident report to explain the missed dose.
• D. Give the missed dose at 1300 and change the schedule to administer daily at 1300.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention is to give the missed dose at 1300 and adjust the schedule to administer daily at 1300. This approach ensures that the client receives the correct total daily dose of levofloxacin. Choice A is incorrect because contacting the healthcare provider and completing a medication variance form would not address the immediate need to administer the missed dose. Choice B is incorrect as administering the missed dose at 1300 and resuming the 0900 schedule the next morning would result in a missed dose for that day. Choice C is not the best course of action as notifying the charge nurse and completing an incident report should come after addressing the immediate need to administer the missed dose and adjusting the schedule for future doses.

5. When reviewing EBP about the administration of O2 therapy, what is the recommended maximum flow rate for regulating O2 via nasal cannula?

• A. Regulate O2 via nasal cannula no more than 6L
• B. Regulate O2 via nasal cannula no more than 2L
• C. Regulate O2 via nasal cannula no more than 4L
• D. Regulate O2 via nasal cannula no more than 8L

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to regulate O2 via nasal cannula no more than 6L. This flow rate is generally recommended to ensure adequate oxygen delivery without causing discomfort or potential harm to the patient. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they suggest flow rates that are either too low (2L, 4L) or too high (8L). A flow rate of 2L might not provide sufficient oxygen, while 4L could be inadequate for some patients. On the other hand, a flow rate of 8L could be excessive and potentially harmful, leading to complications like oxygen toxicity. Therefore, the optimal recommendation is to regulate O2 via nasal cannula at a maximum of 6L to balance effectiveness and safety.

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