HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Practice Questions
1. A client scheduled for arthroplasty expresses concern about the risk of acquiring an infection from a blood transfusion. Which of the following statements should the nurse make to the client?
- A. Donate autologous blood before the surgery
- B. Request a specific blood type from the donor
- C. Use blood from a family member
- D. Accept allogeneic blood without concerns
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct statement for the nurse to make to the client is to 'Donate autologous blood before the surgery.' Autologous blood donation involves collecting and storing the client's own blood for potential use during surgery, which significantly reduces the risk of transfusion-related infections. This option directly addresses the client's concern about infection risk. Requesting a specific blood type from a donor (Choice B) is not as effective in reducing infection risk compared to autologous blood donation. Using blood from a family member (Choice C) carries the risk of transfusion reactions and infections due to compatibility issues. Accepting allogeneic blood without concerns (Choice D) does not address the client's specific concern about infection risk and is not the most appropriate option in this situation.
2. During an admission assessment, a healthcare professional finds a client's radial pulse rate to be 68/min and the simultaneous apical pulse to be 84/min. What is the client’s pulse deficit (per minute)?
- A. 16
- B. 12
- C. 6
- D. 14
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The pulse deficit is calculated by finding the difference between the apical and radial pulse rates. In this case, the difference is 84 - 68 = 16. This indicates that there is a pulse deficit of 16 beats per minute. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the difference between the two pulse rates.
3. The healthcare professional is caring for a client with a chest tube. Which observation requires immediate intervention?
- A. Constant bubbling in the suction control chamber
- B. Intermittent bubbling in the water seal chamber
- C. Drainage of 50 ml per hour
- D. Crepitus around the insertion site
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Crepitus around the chest tube insertion site may indicate subcutaneous emphysema, which requires immediate attention. The presence of crepitus suggests air leaking into the tissues, which could lead to respiratory compromise. Constant bubbling in the suction control chamber is expected and indicates proper functioning of the chest tube system. Intermittent bubbling in the water seal chamber is also normal, showing the system is intact. Drainage of 50 ml per hour is within the expected range for a chest tube.
4. A nurse is teaching an older adult client who has type 2 diabetes mellitus about how to care for corns and calluses on her toes. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I can place an oval corn pad over toes that have corns as long as I remove the pad weekly
- B. I should soak my feet in warm water daily to soften corns and calluses
- C. I can apply lotion to soften calluses as long as I don’t put lotion between my toes
- D. I should use an over the counter liquid medication to remove corns
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Applying lotion to the feet, avoiding between toes, is correct; over-the-counter treatments and soaking are not recommended.
5. When should discharge planning be initiated for a client experiencing an exacerbation of heart failure?
- A. During the admission process.
- B. After the client stabilizes.
- C. Only after the client requests it.
- D. At the time of discharge.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Discharge planning should begin during the admission process for a client experiencing an exacerbation of heart failure. Initiating discharge planning early ensures timely and effective care transitions, which are crucial for managing the client's condition and preventing readmissions. Waiting until after the client stabilizes (choice B) could lead to delays in arranging necessary follow-up care and support services. Similarly, waiting for the client to request discharge planning (choice C) may result in missed opportunities for comprehensive care coordination. Planning at the time of discharge (choice D) is too late, as early intervention is key to promoting the client's well-being and recovery in the long term.
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