HESI LPN
HESI Fundamental Practice Exam
1. When a client decides not to have surgery despite significant blockages of the coronary arteries, it is an example of which of the following ethical principles?
- A. Fidelity
- B. Autonomy
- C. Justice
- D. Nonmaleficence
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is autonomy. Autonomy is the ethical principle that upholds an individual's right to make decisions about their healthcare, including the choice to refuse treatment or surgery. In this scenario, the client's decision not to have surgery despite the recommendation is an exercise of autonomy. Choice A, fidelity, refers to being faithful and keeping promises, which is not applicable in this situation. Choice C, justice, pertains to fair and equal distribution of resources and treatment, not the individual's right to make decisions. Choice D, nonmaleficence, relates to the obligation to do no harm, which is not directly applicable to the client's decision to refuse surgery.
2. A client with a terminal illness is being educated by a healthcare provider about her decision to decline resuscitation in her living will. The client asks about the scenario of having difficulty breathing upon arrival at the emergency department.
- A. “We will apply oxygen through a tube in your nose.”
- B. “We will perform resuscitation efforts regardless of your wishes.”
- C. “You will receive only palliative care.”
- D. “We will ensure your comfort measures are met as per your advance directives.”
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Choice A is correct because applying oxygen through a tube in the nose provides comfort and aligns with the client's wishes for palliative care without resuscitation. This intervention can help alleviate breathing difficulties and maintain comfort without initiating full resuscitation efforts, respecting the client's decision. Choice B is incorrect as it goes against the client's expressed wish to decline resuscitation in her living will. Choice C is not the most appropriate response as it does not directly address the client's immediate concern of difficulty breathing and lacks specificity. Choice D, although focusing on comfort measures, is less specific than the correct choice A in addressing the client's immediate need for assistance with breathing.
3. A client enters the emergency department unconscious via ambulance from the client's workplace. What document should be given priority to guide the direction of care for this client?
- A. The statement of client rights and the client self-determination act
- B. Orders written by the healthcare provider
- C. A notarized original copy of advance directives brought in by the partner
- D. The clinical pathway protocol of the agency and the emergency department
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In the scenario described, when a client arrives unconscious, priority should be given to a notarized original copy of advance directives brought in by the partner. Advance directives are legal documents that specify a person's healthcare wishes and decision-making preferences in advance. These directives guide healthcare providers in delivering care according to the client's preferences when the client is unable to communicate. The statement of client rights and the client self-determination act (Choice A) are important but do not provide specific care instructions. Orders written by the healthcare provider (Choice B) may not reflect the client's wishes. Clinical pathway protocols (Choice D) are valuable but do not address the individualized care preferences of the client.
4. Which of the following should a group of community health nurses plan as part of a primary prevention program for occupational pulmonary diseases?
- A. Screening for early symptoms
- B. Providing treatment for diagnosed conditions
- C. Elimination of the exposure
- D. Increasing awareness of symptoms
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Elimination of the exposure.' Primary prevention programs for occupational pulmonary diseases aim to prevent the development of these diseases by eliminating or minimizing exposure to harmful substances in the workplace. Screening for early symptoms (Choice A) focuses on secondary prevention, detecting diseases at an early stage. Providing treatment for diagnosed conditions (Choice B) is part of tertiary prevention, managing and treating established diseases. Increasing awareness of symptoms (Choice D) may help in early detection but does not directly address the prevention of exposure, which is crucial for primary prevention of occupational pulmonary diseases.
5. When should discharge planning for a client experiencing an exacerbation of heart failure be initiated?
- A. During the admission process
- B. After the client is stabilized
- C. When the client expresses readiness to go home
- D. Just before the expected discharge date
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Discharge planning for a client with an exacerbation of heart failure should begin during the admission process. Initiating discharge planning early ensures a smooth transition and continuity of care for the client. Option B, after the client is stabilized, is not ideal because planning should start early to address potential barriers to discharge. Option C, when the client expresses readiness to go home, may be too late as discharge planning is a proactive process. Option D, just before the expected discharge date, does not allow enough time for comprehensive planning and coordination of post-discharge care needs.
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