HESI LPN
HESI Fundamental Practice Exam
1. When a client decides not to have surgery despite significant blockages of the coronary arteries, it is an example of which of the following ethical principles?
- A. Fidelity
- B. Autonomy
- C. Justice
- D. Nonmaleficence
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is autonomy. Autonomy is the ethical principle that upholds an individual's right to make decisions about their healthcare, including the choice to refuse treatment or surgery. In this scenario, the client's decision not to have surgery despite the recommendation is an exercise of autonomy. Choice A, fidelity, refers to being faithful and keeping promises, which is not applicable in this situation. Choice C, justice, pertains to fair and equal distribution of resources and treatment, not the individual's right to make decisions. Choice D, nonmaleficence, relates to the obligation to do no harm, which is not directly applicable to the client's decision to refuse surgery.
2. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should the LPN/LVN monitor closely while the client is taking this medication?
- A. Blood glucose level
- B. Prothrombin time (PT) and INR
- C. Serum potassium level
- D. Serum creatinine level
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The LPN/LVN should closely monitor Prothrombin time (PT) and INR (Choice B) levels in a client receiving warfarin. These values are crucial to ensure the medication's effectiveness and prevent complications like bleeding. Monitoring blood glucose level (Choice A) is not directly relevant to warfarin therapy. While serum potassium level (Choice C) and serum creatinine level (Choice D) are important for other conditions or medications, they are not specifically required to be monitored when a client is on warfarin.
3. A healthcare professional is planning to perform ear irrigation on an adult client with impacted cerumen. Which of the following should the professional plan to take?
- A. Wearing sterile gloves while performing irrigation
- B. Positioning the client with the affected side down following irrigation
- C. Using cool fluid to irrigate the ear canal
- D. Pulling the pinna downward during irrigation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Positioning the client with the affected side down following irrigation is crucial as it helps facilitate drainage of the dislodged cerumen and any remaining irrigation solution. This position allows gravity to assist in the removal of the loosened debris. Wearing sterile gloves is a standard precaution in healthcare procedures to prevent infection but is not specific to ear irrigation. Using body-temperature water or a solution at a slightly warmer temperature is recommended to prevent vertigo and discomfort, so using cool fluid is incorrect. Pulling the pinna upward and backward, not downward, straightens the ear canal for adults to facilitate the irrigation process, making choice D incorrect.
4. In planning care for a premature infant with respiratory distress syndrome, nursing actions are based on the fact that the most likely cause of this problem stems from the infant's inability to
- A. Stabilize alveolar surface tension
- B. Maintain alveolar surface tension
- C. Promote normal pulmonary blood flow
- D. Regulate intra-cardiac pressure
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Maintain alveolar surface tension. Respiratory distress syndrome in premature infants is often caused by a deficiency in surfactant, a substance that helps maintain alveolar surface tension. Without adequate surfactant, the alveoli collapse, making it difficult for the infant to oxygenate effectively. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because stabilizing alveolar surface tension is not the issue, promoting normal pulmonary blood flow and regulating intra-cardiac pressure are not directly related to the pathophysiology of respiratory distress syndrome in premature infants.
5. A client who is nonambulatory notifies the nurse that his trash can is on fire. After the nurse confirms the fire, which of the following actions should the nurse take next?
- A. Activate the emergency fire alarm
- B. Extinguish the fire
- C. Evacuate the client
- D. Confine the fire
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take next, after confirming the fire, is to evacuate the client. In a fire situation, following the RACE mnemonic, the priority is to rescue or evacuate clients to ensure their safety. Activating the emergency fire alarm (Choice A) is important to alert others and the fire department, but evacuating the client takes precedence. Extinguishing the fire (Choice B) may put the nurse and client at risk and is best left to trained personnel. Confining the fire (Choice D) is not the nurse's responsibility; the focus should be on ensuring the client's safety by evacuating them.
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