Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is receiving a verbal prescription from the provider for a client who is experiencing increased pain. The nurse should transcribe which of the following prescriptions in the client's medical record?

• A. Morphine sulfate 10 mg IV q 4 IV prn for pain
• B. MS 10 mg IV every 4 8 prn for pain
• C. MSO4 10 mg IVP q 4 8 prn for pain
• D. Morphine sulfate 10.0 mg every 4 hours IV prn for pain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct transcription is 'Morphine sulfate 10 mg IV q 4 IV prn for pain.' In choice A, 'Morphine sulfate 10 mg IV q 4 IV prn for pain' correctly indicates the medication, route (IV), frequency (every 4 hours), and administration as needed for pain control. Choice B is incorrect as 'MS' is not a standard abbreviation for Morphine Sulfate, and the frequency 'every 4 8' is not a valid time interval. Choice C is incorrect as 'MSO4' is not the standard abbreviation for Morphine Sulfate, and 'IVP' is not the standard route abbreviation for intravenous. Choice D is incorrect as it lacks clarity with '10.0 mg' instead of '10 mg,' and the frequency is given as 'every 4 hours' without specifying the route of administration.

2. While caring for a four-year-old female patient who was severely burned in a house fire, how would you determine the extent of this child's burns?

• A. By using the Lund and Browder chart
• B. By using the Rule of Nines
• C. By using the Rule of Tens
• D. By using the Parkland Formula

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: By using the Lund and Browder chart. The Lund and Browder chart is specifically designed to assess the extent of burns in children accurately, taking into account the variation in body proportions as children grow. This method provides a more precise estimation of the total body surface area affected by burns in pediatric patients. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. The Rule of Nines is more suitable for adults, not children. The Rule of Tens is not a standard method for assessing burn extent, and the Parkland Formula is used to calculate fluid resuscitation requirements in burn patients, not to determine the extent of burns.

3. What are some of the earliest signs and symptoms of Duchenne's muscular dystrophy?

• A. Clumsiness, difficulty running, climbing, and riding a bicycle
• B. Pain and inflammation in the bones
• C. Deformity of the foot
• D. Infection in the joint leading to arthritis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clumsiness, difficulty running, climbing, and riding a bicycle are some of the earliest signs and symptoms of Duchenne's muscular dystrophy. Duchenne's muscular dystrophy is a genetic disorder characterized by progressive muscle degeneration and weakness. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not represent the typical early signs and symptoms of Duchenne's muscular dystrophy. Pain and inflammation in the bones (choice B) are more indicative of conditions like osteomyelitis; deformity of the foot (choice C) is characteristic of talipes or clubfoot; and infection in the joint leading to arthritis (choice D) is more aligned with septic joint or supportive arthritis.

4. During which stage of anesthesia is a patient most likely to experience involuntary motor activity?

• A. Stage I
• B. Stage II
• C. Stage III
• D. Stage VI

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Stage II. During Stage II of anesthesia, a patient is most likely to experience involuntary motor activity. This stage is known as the excitement stage, where the patient may exhibit purposeful or involuntary movements. Choice A (Stage I) is incorrect because Stage I is the induction phase where the patient is transitioning from consciousness to unconsciousness, and involuntary motor activity is less likely to occur. Choice C (Stage III) is incorrect as it is the stage of surgical anesthesia characterized by muscle relaxation, and involuntary motor activity is less common during this stage. Choice D (Stage VI) is incorrect as there is no Stage VI in the standard stages of anesthesia. Therefore, the most appropriate stage where involuntary motor activity is likely to occur is Stage II.

5. Which preventive measure can be employed to decrease the risk of compartment syndrome?

• A. The administration of a potassium-sparing diuretic for heart failure
• B. A bivalve cast for a skeletal fracture
• C. A cerebral diuretic to decrease intracranial pressure after a head injury
• D. A chest tube to restore normal intrathoracic pressure after a pneumothorax

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A bivalve cast can help decrease the risk of compartment syndrome by providing space for swelling, thus preventing the build-up of pressure within the muscles. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they are not directly related to preventing compartment syndrome. Choice A is more focused on managing heart failure, choice C on reducing intracranial pressure, and choice D on restoring intrathoracic pressure after a pneumothorax, which are not relevant to preventing compartment syndrome.

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