HESI LPN
Community Health HESI Test Bank 2023
1. A nurse working in a community health setting is performing primary health screenings. Which individual is at highest risk for contracting an HIV infection?
- A. A 17-year-old who is sexually active with numerous partners.
- B. A 45-year-old lesbian who has been sexually active with two partners in the past year.
- C. A 30-year-old cocaine user who inhales the drug and works in a topless bar.
- D. A 34-year-old male homosexual who is in a monogamous relationship.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. A 17-year-old who is sexually active with numerous partners is at the highest risk for contracting an HIV infection due to engaging in risky sexual behavior with multiple partners, increasing the likelihood of exposure to the virus. Choice B is less risky as the individual has had a relatively lower number of sexual partners in the past year. Choice C, although involving drug use, does not directly correlate with a higher risk of contracting HIV unless needles are shared. Choice D, a 34-year-old male homosexual in a monogamous relationship, has a lower risk compared to choice A as long as the relationship remains monogamous.
2. Which of the following characteristics apply to 2 to 3-year-old children?
- A. Prefers to feed themselves
- B. Eats very small nutritious meals a day rather than 3 large meals
- C. Can speak in longer sentences
- D. Can use a toothbrush properly
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. During the age of 2 to 3 years old, children tend to eat very small, nutritious meals throughout the day rather than having three large meals. This behavior is typical for this age group as their appetites fluctuate. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because while children of this age may start to prefer feeding themselves and begin using a toothbrush with assistance, they typically do not speak in longer sentences at this stage.
3. A health program that aims to reduce the incidence of chronic diseases through lifestyle modifications is an example of:
- A. Primary prevention
- B. Secondary prevention
- C. Tertiary prevention
- D. Quaternary prevention
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Primary prevention. Primary prevention focuses on preventing the development of diseases or injuries before they occur by promoting healthy behaviors and lifestyles. In this scenario, the health program targeting lifestyle modifications to reduce chronic diseases aligns with primary prevention efforts. Choice B, secondary prevention, involves early detection and treatment to prevent the progression of disease. Choice C, tertiary prevention, focuses on managing and treating existing diseases to prevent complications. Choice D, quaternary prevention, relates to actions taken to mitigate or avoid the consequences of unnecessary or excessive interventions in healthcare.
4. A client with asthma has low-pitched wheezes present on the final half of exhalation. One hour later the client has high-pitched wheezes extending throughout exhalation. This change in assessment indicates to the nurse that the client
- A. Has increased airway obstruction
- B. Has improved airway obstruction
- C. Needs to be suctioned
- D. Exhibits hyperventilation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Has increased airway obstruction.' High-pitched wheezes extending throughout exhalation indicate a worsening airway obstruction, leading to increased resistance in the airways. Low-pitched wheezes present on the final half of exhalation may suggest some level of obstruction, but the change to high-pitched wheezes throughout exhalation indicates a progression in the obstruction. Choice B is incorrect as the change in wheeze characteristics signifies deterioration rather than improvement. Choice C is incorrect as suctioning is not indicated based on the wheeze assessment findings. Choice D is incorrect as hyperventilation does not typically present with wheezes and is not supported by the information provided.
5. A client was admitted with a diagnosis of pneumonia. When auscultating the client's breath sounds, the nurse hears inspiratory crackles in the right base. Temperature is 102.3 degrees Fahrenheit orally. What finding would the nurse expect?
- A. Flushed skin
- B. Bradycardia
- C. Mental confusion
- D. Hypotension
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Mental confusion. In this scenario, the client's high fever and pneumonia diagnosis indicate an infection. Infections, especially in older adults, can lead to mental confusion due to the body's systemic response to the infection. Flushed skin (choice A) is more commonly associated with fever but does not specifically relate to the client's condition. Bradycardia (choice B) and hypotension (choice D) are less likely findings in a client with pneumonia and a high fever; instead, tachycardia and increased blood pressure are more commonly seen in response to infection.
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