Nursing Elites

1. A nurse working in a community health setting is performing primary health screenings. Which individual is at highest risk for contracting an HIV infection?

• A. A 17-year-old who is sexually active with numerous partners.
• B. A 45-year-old lesbian who has been sexually active with two partners in the past year.
• C. A 30-year-old cocaine user who inhales the drug and works in a topless bar.
• D. A 34-year-old male homosexual who is in a monogamous relationship.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A 17-year-old who is sexually active with numerous partners is at the highest risk for contracting an HIV infection due to engaging in risky sexual behavior with multiple partners, increasing the likelihood of exposure to the virus. Choice B is less risky as the individual has had a relatively lower number of sexual partners in the past year. Choice C, although involving drug use, does not directly correlate with a higher risk of contracting HIV unless needles are shared. Choice D, a 34-year-old male homosexual in a monogamous relationship, has a lower risk compared to choice A as long as the relationship remains monogamous.

2. A nurse organizes a community action group to help resolve health problems in a low-income neighborhood with a large population of recent immigrants from Africa. What problem should the nurse address first?

• A. High rate of unemployment.
• B. Low immunization rate of children.
• C. Provision of substandard health care.
• D. Access to bilingual care providers.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Low immunization rate of children. Addressing low immunization rates is crucial as it directly impacts the health of children and the community by preventing the spread of infectious diseases. Option A, high rate of unemployment, though important for overall well-being, is not the most immediate health concern. Option C, provision of substandard health care, is a significant issue but may not be as urgent as ensuring children are immunized. Option D, access to bilingual care providers, is important for effective communication but is not as critical as addressing low immunization rates in this scenario.

3. The nurse is planning care for a client with increased intracranial pressure. The best position for this client is

• A. Trendelenburg
• B. Prone
• C. Semi-Fowler's
• D. Side-lying with head flat

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Semi-Fowler's. This position helps to reduce intracranial pressure by promoting venous drainage from the head while maintaining adequate oxygenation. Option A, Trendelenburg position, is incorrect as it involves placing the patient with the head lower than the body, which can increase intracranial pressure. Option B, Prone position, is also incorrect as it involves lying on the stomach, which can further elevate intracranial pressure. Option D, Side-lying with head flat, does not provide the same benefits as the Semi-Fowler's position in terms of promoting venous drainage and maintaining oxygenation in a client with increased intracranial pressure.

4. The Food Fortification Act of 2000 provides for the mandatory fortification of staple foods, which includes:

• A. Flour with iron
• B. Refined sugar with iron
• C. Cooking oil with vitamin A
• D. Rice with vitamin A

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Flour with iron. The Food Fortification Act of 2000 mandates the fortification of flour with iron to address iron deficiency in the population. Refined sugar is not typically fortified with iron, making choice B incorrect. While cooking oil fortification with vitamin A is common in some regions, it is not specified under the Food Fortification Act of 2000, rendering choice C incorrect. Similarly, rice fortification with vitamin A is not included in the mandatory fortification list according to the act, making choice D incorrect.

5. A client with chronic congestive heart failure should be instructed to contact the home health nurse if which finding occurs?

• A. Weight gain of 2 pounds or more in a 48-hour period
• B. Urinating 4 to 5 times a day
• C. A significant decrease in appetite
• D. Appearance of non-pitting ankle edema

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A rapid weight gain of 2 pounds or more in a 48-hour period may indicate fluid retention and worsening heart failure, requiring prompt medical evaluation and intervention. This finding is crucial in managing chronic congestive heart failure as it signifies a potential exacerbation of the condition. Choices B, C, and D are less concerning in this context. Urinating 4 to 5 times a day is within the normal range for most individuals and may not be directly related to heart failure. A significant decrease in appetite may be due to various factors and might not be an immediate cause for concern in heart failure patients. The appearance of non-pitting ankle edema, although related to heart failure, is a more chronic and less urgent symptom when compared to a rapid weight gain, which requires immediate attention.

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