Nursing Elites

1. A nurse working in a community health setting is performing primary health screenings. Which individual is at highest risk for contracting an HIV infection?

• A. A 17-year-old who is sexually active with numerous partners.
• B. A 45-year-old lesbian who has been sexually active with two partners in the past year.
• C. A 30-year-old cocaine user who inhales the drug and works in a topless bar.
• D. A 34-year-old male homosexual who is in a monogamous relationship.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A 17-year-old who is sexually active with numerous partners is at the highest risk for contracting an HIV infection due to engaging in risky sexual behavior with multiple partners, increasing the likelihood of exposure to the virus. Choice B is less risky as the individual has had a relatively lower number of sexual partners in the past year. Choice C, although involving drug use, does not directly correlate with a higher risk of contracting HIV unless needles are shared. Choice D, a 34-year-old male homosexual in a monogamous relationship, has a lower risk compared to choice A as long as the relationship remains monogamous.

2. A hospitalized child suddenly has a seizure while his family is visiting. The nurse notes whole body rigidity followed by general jerking movements. The child vomits immediately after the seizure. A priority nursing diagnosis for the child is

• A. High risk for infection related to vomiting
• B. Altered family processes related to chronic illness
• C. Fluid volume deficit related to vomiting
• D. Risk for aspiration related to loss of consciousness

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Risk for aspiration is a priority concern following a seizure, especially when the child vomits, as there is a danger of aspirating the vomit into the lungs, leading to respiratory complications. The other options are not the priority in this situation. While infection risk and fluid volume deficit are important, ensuring the child's airway is clear and there is no risk of aspiration takes precedence. Altered family processes may be a concern but addressing the immediate physiological risk is the priority.

3. The nurse is administering the measles, mumps, rubella (MMR) vaccine to a 12-month-old child during the well-baby visit. Which age range should the nurse advise the parents to plan for their child to receive the MMR booster based on the current recommendations and guidelines by the Center for Disease Control (CDC)?

• A. 13 to 18 years of age.
• B. 11 to 12 years of age.
• C. 18 to 24 months of age.
• D. 4 to 6 years of age.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 4 to 6 years of age. The CDC recommends the MMR booster for children in this age group. Choice A (13 to 18 years of age) is incorrect as it is not the recommended age range for the MMR booster. Choice B (11 to 12 years of age) is also incorrect as it does not align with the CDC guidelines for the MMR booster. Choice C (18 to 24 months of age) is not the correct age range for the MMR booster according to CDC recommendations.

4. A 16-year-old female client returns to the clinic because she is pregnant for the third time by a new boyfriend. Which vaccine should the nurse plan to administer?

• A. MMR
• B. Hepatitis B
• C. Human papillomavirus
• D. Pneumococcal

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, Hepatitis B. The Hepatitis B vaccine is crucial for pregnant women to prevent transmission of the virus to the baby during childbirth. Option A, MMR (Measles, Mumps, Rubella) vaccine, is not indicated during pregnancy. Option C, Human papillomavirus vaccine, is recommended for prevention of HPV infections but is not specifically indicated during pregnancy. Option D, Pneumococcal vaccine, is important for certain populations but is not the priority vaccine for a pregnant woman in this scenario.

5. The RN is making a home visit to a female client with end-stage heart disease. She has a living will and states she will never go back to the hospital. During the visit, the RN notes that the client is pale and SOB while speaking. The RN discovers 3+ edema in both ankles and bilateral pulmonary crackles. Which intervention should the RN implement first?

• A. Order a chest X-ray
• B. Obtain a peripheral O2 saturation reading
• C. Obtain an order for complete blood count
• D. Tell the patient to stay in bed

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Obtaining a peripheral O2 saturation reading is the priority intervention in this scenario. It helps assess the client's oxygenation status quickly, which is crucial in a client with signs of respiratory distress, such as shortness of breath and bilateral pulmonary crackles. Ordering a chest X-ray (Choice A) may be necessary later but does not address the immediate need for oxygen assessment. Obtaining an order for a complete blood count (Choice C) is not the priority in this situation as it does not directly address the client's respiratory distress. Instructing the patient to stay in bed (Choice D) does not address the underlying issue of potential hypoxia and respiratory compromise.

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