a nurse reviews a clients laboratory report and notes that the clients serum phosphorus level is 20 mgdl which condition most likely caused this serum a nurse reviews a clients laboratory report and notes that the clients serum phosphorus level is 20 mgdl which condition most likely caused this serum
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Nursing Elites

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HESI Leadership and Management Test Bank

1. A nurse reviews a client's laboratory report and notes that the client's serum phosphorus level is 2.0 mg/dL. Which condition most likely caused this serum phosphorus level?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Alcoholism. Alcoholism can lead to hypophosphatemia due to poor dietary intake and other factors. Excessive alcohol consumption can result in malnutrition, particularly a deficiency in phosphorus. Choices B, C, and D are unlikely to cause low serum phosphorus levels. Renal insufficiency is more likely to cause hyperphosphatemia, hypoparathyroidism is associated with hypocalcemia rather than hypophosphatemia, and tumor lysis syndrome typically presents with hyperphosphatemia due to the release of intracellular phosphate.

2. What is a common sign of a urinary tract infection in older children?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Frequent urination is a common sign of a urinary tract infection in older children. It is often accompanied by other symptoms such as pain or discomfort. Increased appetite (Choice B) is not typically associated with urinary tract infections. Elevated blood pressure (Choice C) is more commonly linked to conditions like hypertension, not urinary tract infections. Decreased energy levels (Choice D) can be a sign of various health issues but are not a typical symptom of a urinary tract infection.

3. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed amlodipine. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential adverse effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker commonly associated with causing peripheral edema as an adverse effect. The nurse should monitor the client for signs of swelling, particularly in the lower extremities, as it may indicate a need for dosage adjustment or further evaluation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as amlodipine is not known to cause tachycardia, bradycardia, or increased appetite as adverse effects.

4. The motive for a person who alters their diet due to religious convictions is most likely related to their ___.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, 'values.' When individuals alter their diet due to religious convictions, it is primarily driven by their personal or cultural values associated with their faith. This choice reflects the strong influence that religious beliefs can have on dietary choices. Choice B, 'body image,' is incorrect because altering one's diet for religious reasons is more about spiritual beliefs than physical appearance. Choice C, 'ethnic heritage,' is incorrect as it pertains more to cultural background rather than religious convictions. Choice D, 'functional association,' is incorrect as it does not directly relate to the motivation behind altering one's diet for religious reasons.

5. When lifting a bedside cabinet to move it closer to a client who is sitting in a chair, which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent self-injury?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to stand close to the cabinet when lifting it. This action keeps the object close to the nurse's center of gravity, reducing the risk of back strain. Bending at the waist (Choice A) can increase the risk of back injury as it puts strain on the lower back. Keeping feet close together (Choice B) does not provide a stable base of support for lifting a heavy object. Using back muscles for lifting (Choice C) is incorrect as it can lead to back strain and injury. Therefore, standing close to the cabinet when lifting it is the safest and most effective approach to prevent self-injury.

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