a nurse reviews a clients laboratory report and notes that the clients serum phosphorus level is 20 mgdl which condition most likely caused this serum
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HESI Leadership and Management Test Bank

1. A nurse reviews a client's laboratory report and notes that the client's serum phosphorus level is 2.0 mg/dL. Which condition most likely caused this serum phosphorus level?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Alcoholism. Alcoholism can lead to hypophosphatemia due to poor dietary intake and other factors. Excessive alcohol consumption can result in malnutrition, particularly a deficiency in phosphorus. Choices B, C, and D are unlikely to cause low serum phosphorus levels. Renal insufficiency is more likely to cause hyperphosphatemia, hypoparathyroidism is associated with hypocalcemia rather than hypophosphatemia, and tumor lysis syndrome typically presents with hyperphosphatemia due to the release of intracellular phosphate.

2. Which of the following is the best argument for lower patient-to-nurse ratio?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best argument for lower patient-to-nurse ratios is that they decrease patient mortality. Choice A is incorrect because having more patients can lead to increased workload and decreased attention per patient. Choice C is incorrect as adequate nurse levels can indeed impact the prevalence of infections. Choice D is incorrect as community nursing ratios can impact MRSA rates due to potential transmission risks in healthcare settings.

3. A nurse is preparing to discharge a client who has end-stage heart failure. The client's partner tells the nurse she can no longer handle caring for the client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should contact the case manager to discuss discharge options and support the client's partner. This action is appropriate as it involves seeking professional guidance and support for the client's partner who is struggling to care for the client. Option A is not the best choice as it solely focuses on involving another family member without addressing the partner's concerns directly. Option B is premature as recommending long-term care should be a well-considered decision involving multiple healthcare professionals. Option D delays the inevitable without providing a solution to the partner's current challenges.

4. Which statement about glaucoma is true and accurate?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Acute angle-closure glaucoma is an ocular emergency.' Acute angle-closure glaucoma is indeed considered an ocular emergency that requires immediate attention to prevent vision loss. Choice B is incorrect because acute angle-closure glaucoma commonly presents with symptoms like severe eye pain, headache, blurred vision, and halos around lights. Choice C is incorrect as these symptoms are more indicative of acute angle-closure glaucoma rather than primary open-angle glaucoma. Choice D is incorrect since bubbles are not typically used to protect the retina from glaucoma; treatment usually involves medications, laser therapy, or surgery to manage intraocular pressure.

5. Who is credited with the stages of cognitive development?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Piaget is indeed credited with the stages of cognitive development. Jean Piaget, a renowned psychologist, proposed a theory of cognitive development that outlines distinct stages through which children develop intellectually. Erikson, Freud, and Lister are not associated with the stages of cognitive development. Erikson is known for his psychosocial stages, Freud for psychosexual stages, and Lister for contributions to the field of medicine.

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