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Leadership and Management HESI Quizlet
1. What is the main objective of palliative care?
- A. To cure the disease
- B. To provide relief from symptoms and improve quality of life
- C. To extend hospital stays
- D. To focus solely on treatment
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The main objective of palliative care is to provide relief from symptoms and improve quality of life. Palliative care focuses on enhancing the quality of life for patients facing serious illnesses by providing relief from symptoms such as pain, stress, and other physical and emotional issues. Choice A is incorrect because palliative care does not aim to cure the disease but rather to manage symptoms. Choice C is incorrect as the goal of palliative care is not to extend hospital stays unnecessarily but to improve the patient's well-being. Choice D is incorrect as palliative care is not solely focused on treatment but takes a holistic approach to care that includes addressing physical, emotional, social, and spiritual needs.
2. A nurse manager is reviewing isolation guidelines with a newly licensed nurse. Which of the following statements by the newly licensed nurse indicates understanding of isolation guidelines?
- A. I will have a client who is on airborne precautions wear a mask when out of their room.
- B. I will wear an N95 respirator mask for a client who is on droplet precautions.
- C. I will place a client who has compromised immunity in a negative-pressure airflow room.
- D. I will instruct visitors to wear a mask when visiting a client who is on contact precautions.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Having a client on airborne precautions wear a mask when out of their room is appropriate to prevent the spread of infection. Choice B is incorrect because the healthcare provider, not the client, wears an N95 respirator mask for a client on droplet precautions. Choice C is incorrect because negative-pressure airflow rooms are used for clients with airborne infections, not compromised immunity. Choice D is incorrect because visitors, not clients, should wear a mask when visiting a client on contact precautions.
3. Which anatomic malformations are associated with Tetralogy of Fallot?
- A. A sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, left ventricular hypertrophy, and right ventricular outflow
- B. A sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy, and left ventricular outflow
- C. A sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, pulmonary atresia, and right ventricular outflow
- D. A sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy, and right ventricular outflow
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Tetralogy of Fallot is characterized by a combination of four heart defects: a sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy, and right ventricular outflow obstruction. This leads to mixing of oxygen-poor and oxygen-rich blood, resulting in cyanosis. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not accurately describe the specific combination of anatomic malformations seen in Tetralogy of Fallot.
4. What are some of the earliest signs and symptoms of Duchenne's muscular dystrophy?
- A. Clumsiness, difficulty running, climbing, and riding a bicycle
- B. Pain and inflammation in the bones
- C. Deformity of the foot
- D. Infection in the joint leading to arthritis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clumsiness, difficulty running, climbing, and riding a bicycle are some of the earliest signs and symptoms of Duchenne's muscular dystrophy. Duchenne's muscular dystrophy is a genetic disorder characterized by progressive muscle degeneration and weakness. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not represent the typical early signs and symptoms of Duchenne's muscular dystrophy. Pain and inflammation in the bones (choice B) are more indicative of conditions like osteomyelitis; deformity of the foot (choice C) is characteristic of talipes or clubfoot; and infection in the joint leading to arthritis (choice D) is more aligned with septic joint or supportive arthritis.
5. Select all of the risk factors that are associated with deep vein thrombosis.
- A. The use of oral contraceptives
- B. Type B and O blood
- C. Rh negative blood
- D. Underweight
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: "The use of oral contraceptives." Risk factors for deep vein thrombosis include factors such as immobility, surgery, cancer, obesity, smoking, and the use of oral contraceptives. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because blood type and Rh factor do not play a role in the development of deep vein thrombosis, and being underweight is not typically considered a risk factor for this condition.
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