HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Exam Test Bank
1. The patient is reporting an inability to clear nasal passages. Which action will the nurse take?
- A. Use gentle suction to prevent tissue damage.
- B. Instruct the patient to blow their nose forcefully to clear the passage.
- C. Place a dry washcloth under the nose to absorb secretions.
- D. Insert a cotton-tipped applicator into the back of the nose.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a patient reports an inability to clear nasal passages, the appropriate action for the nurse to take is to use gentle suction to prevent tissue damage. Suctioning helps remove excess mucus or secretions without causing harm to the nasal tissues. Instructing the patient to blow their nose forcefully (Choice B) may exacerbate the issue and cause discomfort or injury. Placing a dry washcloth under the nose (Choice C) is not an effective intervention for clearing nasal passages. Inserting a cotton-tipped applicator into the back of the nose (Choice D) is not recommended as it can be invasive and may cause injury or discomfort to the patient.
2. A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen at 2 liters per minute via nasal cannula. The client is short of breath and has a pulse oximetry reading of 88%. What action should the LPN take first?
- A. Increase the oxygen flow rate to 4 liters per minute.
- B. Reposition the client to a high Fowler's position.
- C. Notify the healthcare provider of the client's condition.
- D. Encourage the client to use pursed-lip breathing.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Repositioning the client to a high Fowler's position should be the first action taken by the LPN. This position helps improve oxygenation by maximizing lung expansion, making it easier for the client to breathe. Increasing the oxygen flow rate without addressing positioning may not fully optimize oxygen delivery. Notifying the healthcare provider should come after immediate interventions. Encouraging pursed-lip breathing is beneficial but should follow the initial positioning to further assist the client in managing their breathing difficulty.
3. A self-sufficient bedridden patient is unable to reach all body parts. Which type of bath will the nurse assign to the nursing assistive personnel?
- A. Bag bath
- B. Sponge bath
- C. Partial bed bath
- D. Complete bed bath
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is a partial bed bath (Choice C). A partial bed bath involves washing body parts that the patient cannot reach on their own, such as the back. It also includes providing assistance with a backrub to promote circulation and skin integrity. In this scenario, where the patient is bedridden and unable to reach all body parts, a partial bed bath is the most appropriate as it focuses on areas the patient cannot clean themselves. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because a bag bath involves using premoistened disposable cloths for bathing, a sponge bath involves using a basin of water and a sponge for cleansing, and a complete bed bath involves washing the entire body, including areas the patient can reach, which are not necessary in this case.
4. During an assessment, a healthcare professional is evaluating a client who has been on bed rest for the past month. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional identify as an indication that the client has developed thrombophlebitis?
- A. bladder distention
- B. decreased blood pressure
- C. calf swelling
- D. diminished bowel sounds
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Calf swelling, redness, and tenderness are classic signs of thrombophlebitis. The swelling occurs due to the formation of a blood clot in the deep veins of the calf, leading to inflammation and potential obstruction of blood flow. Bladder distention (Choice A) is more indicative of urinary retention, decreased blood pressure (Choice B) can be seen in conditions like shock, and diminished bowel sounds (Choice D) may suggest gastrointestinal issues, none of which are directly related to thrombophlebitis.
5. The healthcare provider is assessing a 17-month-old with acetaminophen poisoning. Which lab reports should the provider review first?
- A. Prothrombin time (PT) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
- B. Red blood cell and white blood cell counts
- C. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels
- D. Liver enzymes (AST and ALT)
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In acetaminophen poisoning, liver damage is a significant concern due to the potential for hepatotoxicity. Therefore, the healthcare provider should first review liver enzymes such as AST (aspartate aminotransferase) and ALT (alanine aminotransferase) to assess liver function. Prothrombin time and partial thromboplastin time are coagulation studies and are not the priority in acetaminophen poisoning. Red blood cell and white blood cell counts are important in assessing for anemia or infection but are not specific to acetaminophen poisoning. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels primarily assess kidney function, which is not the primary concern in acetaminophen poisoning.
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