Nursing Elites

1. A nurse on the IV team is conducting an in-service education program about the complications of IV therapy. Which of the following statements by an attendee indicates an understanding of the manifestations of infiltration? (Select all that apply.)

• A. “The temperature around the IV site is cooler.”
• B. “The rate of the infusion increases.”
• C. “The skin at the IV site is red.”
• D. “The IV dressing is damp.”

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct statement is: 'The temperature around the IV site is cooler.' Cooler temperature around the site is indicative of infiltration, where IV fluid leaks into the surrounding tissue, causing tissue swelling. The other options are incorrect: B) An increase in infusion rate is not a sign of infiltration; instead, it could indicate an issue with the infusion pump or the IV catheter. C) Redness around the IV site is more indicative of infection rather than infiltration. D) A damp IV dressing is more suggestive of a leak in the IV system, not infiltration.

2. When measuring a client's blood pressure, which approach is the priority for a nurse caring for a client with hypertension?

• A. Obtain the blood pressure under the same conditions each time
• B. Use a different arm for each measurement
• C. Measure the blood pressure while the client is standing
• D. Take multiple readings at different times of the day

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct approach when measuring a client's blood pressure, especially for a client with hypertension, is to obtain the blood pressure under the same conditions each time. Consistency in measurement conditions helps ensure accurate and comparable blood pressure readings. Using a different arm for each measurement (Choice B) is not ideal as it can lead to variations in readings. Measuring the blood pressure while the client is standing (Choice C) is not the standard practice and may not provide accurate results. Taking multiple readings at different times of the day (Choice D) may be useful for monitoring blood pressure trends but is not the priority when ensuring accurate individual readings.

3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer dextrose 5% in water (D5W) 1,000-mL IV to infuse over 10 hr. How many mL/hr should the IV infusion pump be set to deliver? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Do not use a trailing zero.)

• A. 100 mL/hr
• B. 150 mL/hr
• C. 75 mL/hr
• D. 50 mL/hr

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To infuse 1,000 mL over 10 hr, the IV pump should be set to deliver 100 mL/hr. This calculation is derived by dividing the total volume (1,000 mL) by the total time in hours (10 hr), resulting in the infusion rate of 100 mL/hr. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the correct calculation for this scenario.

4. During an assessment, a nurse is evaluating the breath sounds of an adult client diagnosed with pneumonia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Follow a systematic pattern from side-to-side moving down the client’s chest.
• B. Ask the client to breathe in deeply through their nose.
• C. Instruct the client to sit upright with their head slightly tilted backward.
• D. Place the diaphragm of the stethoscope on the client’s chest.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing breath sounds in a client with pneumonia, the nurse should follow a systematic pattern from side-to-side moving down the client’s chest. This approach ensures a comprehensive evaluation of breath sounds across different lung fields. Asking the client to breathe in deeply through their nose (Choice B) is not necessary for assessing breath sounds. Instructing the client to sit upright with their head slightly tilted backward (Choice C) is not directly related to assessing breath sounds and may not be required. Placing the diaphragm of the stethoscope on the client’s chest (Choice D) is not the correct technique for auscultating breath sounds, as the diaphragm should be used for this purpose.

5. During an admission assessment, a healthcare professional finds a client's radial pulse rate to be 68/min and the simultaneous apical pulse to be 84/min. What is the client’s pulse deficit (per minute)?

• A. 16
• B. 12
• C. 6
• D. 14

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The pulse deficit is calculated by finding the difference between the apical and radial pulse rates. In this case, the difference is 84 - 68 = 16. This indicates that there is a pulse deficit of 16 beats per minute. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the difference between the two pulse rates.

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