after completing an assessment and determining that a client has a problem which action should the lpnlvn perform next
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Practice Test for Fundamentals

1. After completing an assessment and determining that a client has a problem, what should the LPN/LVN do next?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: After identifying a problem in a client, the next step for the LPN/LVN is to determine the etiology or cause of the problem. Understanding the root cause of the issue is essential as it guides the development of appropriate interventions. Option B, prioritizing nursing care interventions, is premature without knowing the cause of the problem. Option C, planning appropriate interventions, also relies on knowing the etiology first to ensure the interventions directly address the underlying issue. Collaborating with the client to set goals, as mentioned in option D, is important but typically comes after understanding the cause of the problem to ensure the goals are relevant and effective.

2. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed a beta-blocker. Which side effect should the nurse monitor for in this client?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Bradycardia. Beta-blockers are known to decrease heart rate, which can lead to bradycardia. This is a common side effect that nurses should monitor for in clients taking beta-blockers. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because increased appetite, dry mouth, nausea, and vomiting are not typical side effects associated with beta-blockers. Therefore, the nurse should focus on monitoring for bradycardia in this client.

3. A client is scheduled for a total laryngectomy. Which of the following interventions is the priority for the nurse?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority intervention for a client scheduled for a total laryngectomy is to explain the techniques of esophageal speech. This is crucial for the client's post-surgery communication. Option A, scheduling a support session, is important but not the priority as ensuring the client can communicate effectively comes first. Option C, reviewing the use of artificial larynx, is relevant but not the priority compared to teaching esophageal speech. Option D, determining the client's reading ability, is not as critical as ensuring the client learns a primary method of communication following the laryngectomy.

4. A healthcare professional is administering 1 L of 0.9% sodium chloride to a client who is postoperative and has fluid volume deficit. Which of the following changes should the healthcare professional identify as an indication that the treatment was successful?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A decrease in heart rate can indicate that the fluid volume deficit is improving. In cases of fluid volume deficit, the body compensates by increasing the heart rate to maintain adequate perfusion. Therefore, a decrease in heart rate after fluid resuscitation suggests that the body's perfusion status is improving. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because fluid volume deficit typically causes tachycardia, not a decrease in heart rate, and would not result in a decrease in blood pressure or an increase in respiratory rate as primary signs of improvement.

5. The nurse is planning a meal plan that would provide the most iron for a child with anemia. Which dinner menu would be best?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Ground beef, lima beans, and raisins are rich sources of iron, making this meal plan the most suitable for a child with anemia. Ground beef is a high-iron meat, while lima beans and raisins are also excellent sources of iron. Fish sticks, french fries, banana, and cookies in option A lack sufficient iron content compared to the options in B. Chicken nuggets, macaroni, and peas in option C are not as iron-rich as the ground beef, lima beans, and raisins in option B. Peanut butter and jelly sandwich with apple slices in option D also fall short in providing enough iron when compared to the iron-rich components of option B.

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