Nursing Elites

1. A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is washing her hands prior to assisting with a surgical procedure. Which of the following actions by the nurse demonstrates proper surgical hand-washing techniques?

• A. The nurse washes with her hands held higher than her elbows.
• B. The nurse uses a brush to scrub under her nails.
• C. The nurse washes for at least 30 seconds.
• D. The nurse uses alcohol-based hand rub only.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Proper surgical hand-washing technique involves keeping the hands higher than the elbows to prevent contamination. Washing with hands held lower than the elbows can lead to potential contamination. Using a brush to scrub under the nails is not recommended as it can cause microabrasions, increasing infection risk. While washing for at least 30 seconds is a good practice for thorough hand hygiene, hand positioning is critical during surgical hand-washing. Using alcohol-based hand rub alone is insufficient for surgical hand-washing as it may not effectively remove dirt, debris, and transient microorganisms.

2. A nurse is planning care for a client who has fluid overload. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take first?

• A. Evaluate electrolytes
• B. Restrict fluid intake
• C. Administer diuretics
• D. Monitor vital signs

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client has fluid overload, the nurse's first action should be to evaluate electrolytes. Electrolyte levels can be significantly affected by fluid imbalances, and assessing them will guide the nurse in determining the appropriate interventions. Restricting fluid intake (choice B) may be necessary but is not the initial priority. Administering diuretics (choice C) should be based on the electrolyte evaluation and overall assessment. Monitoring vital signs (choice D) is essential but does not provide direct information on the client's electrolyte status, which is crucial in managing fluid overload.

3. A client has been sitting in a chair for 1 hour. Which of the following complications poses the greatest risk to the client?

• A. Decreased subcutaneous fat
• B. Muscle atrophy
• C. Pressure injury
• D. Fecal impaction

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Pressure injury. Prolonged sitting can lead to pressure injuries due to continuous pressure on certain body areas, reducing blood flow and causing tissue damage. While decreased subcutaneous fat, muscle atrophy, and fecal impaction are potential concerns, pressure injuries pose the greatest immediate risk as they can lead to serious complications such as tissue necrosis and infection if not addressed promptly. Decreased subcutaneous fat and muscle atrophy may develop over time with prolonged immobility but are not as acutely dangerous as a pressure injury. Fecal impaction, while uncomfortable and potentially serious, does not pose an immediate life-threatening risk compared to the development of a pressure injury.

4. A client who is a Jehovah's Witness is admitted to the nursing unit. Which concern should the LPN have for planning care in terms of the client's beliefs?

• A. Autopsy of the body is prohibited.
• B. Blood transfusions are forbidden.
• C. Alcohol use in any form is not allowed.
• D. A vegetarian diet must be followed.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Blood transfusions are forbidden.' Jehovah's Witnesses typically refuse blood transfusions due to their religious beliefs. This is crucial for the LPN to consider when planning the client's care to ensure that alternative treatments are explored. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the specific beliefs and practices of Jehovah's Witnesses. Autopsy prohibition, alcohol use restrictions, and dietary preferences are not primary concerns related to the religious beliefs of Jehovah's Witnesses.

5. A client is admitted to the emergency room following an acute asthma attack. Which of the following assessments would be expected by the nurse?

• A. Diffuse expiratory wheezing
• B. Loose, productive cough
• C. No relief from inhaler
• D. Fever and chills

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During an acute asthma attack, one of the expected assessments by the nurse would be diffuse expiratory wheezing. This occurs due to narrowed airways and increased airflow velocity. Choice B, a loose productive cough, is not typically associated with an asthma attack. Choice C, no relief from inhaler, may indicate ineffective treatment but is not a direct assessment finding related to the physical examination. Choice D, fever and chills, are not typical symptoms of an asthma attack and would not be expected findings during the initial assessment of an acute asthma attack.

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