Nursing Elites

1. A nurse obtains a prescription for wrist restraints for a client who is trying to pull out his NG Tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Remove the restraints every 4 hours.
• B. Attach the restraints securely to the side of the client's bed.
• C. Apply the restraints to allow as little movement as possible.
• D. Allow room for two fingers to fit between the client's skin and the restraints.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When using wrist restraints, it is important to allow room for two fingers to fit between the client's skin and the restraints. This practice ensures proper circulation and comfort for the client while still providing the necessary level of security. Choice A is incorrect because removing restraints every 4 hours may compromise the effectiveness of restraint use. Choice B is incorrect as restraints should not be attached to the side of the bed where they could cause harm or be tampered with by the client. Choice C is incorrect because allowing minimal movement may lead to discomfort and compromise proper circulation.

2. A client with a history of alcoholism is admitted with confusion and ataxia. The LPN/LVN recognizes that these symptoms may be related to a deficiency in which vitamin?

• A. Vitamin A
• B. Vitamin C
• C. Vitamin D
• D. Vitamin B1 (Thiamine)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is Vitamin B1 (Thiamine). Vitamin B1 deficiency, also known as Thiamine deficiency, is common in clients with a history of alcoholism. Thiamine is essential for proper brain function, and its deficiency can lead to neurological symptoms such as confusion and ataxia. Vitamin A, C, and D deficiencies do not typically present with confusion and ataxia in the context of alcoholism. Vitamin A deficiency mainly affects vision, Vitamin C deficiency leads to scurvy with symptoms like bleeding gums, and Vitamin D deficiency is associated with bone disorders. Therefore, they are not the correct choices in this scenario.

3. The healthcare professional is evaluating the body alignment of a patient in the sitting position. Which observation will indicate a normal finding?

• A. The edge of the seat is making contact with the popliteal space.
• B. Both feet are supported on the floor with ankles flexed.
• C. The body weight is solely on the buttocks.
• D. The arms hang comfortably at the sides.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a normal sitting position, both feet should be supported on the floor with the ankles comfortably flexed. This position helps in maintaining stability and proper alignment. Choice A is incorrect because the edge of the seat pressing against the popliteal space may cause discomfort and is not indicative of proper alignment. Choice C is incorrect as the body weight should be evenly distributed for proper alignment and comfort, not solely on the buttocks. Choice D is incorrect as the position of the arms alone does not indicate proper body alignment in the sitting position; proper arm positioning is important for comfort but not a key indicator of body alignment.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has terminal lung cancer. The nurse observes the client’s family assisting with all ADLs. Which of the following rationales for self-care should the nurse communicate to the family?

• A. Allowing the client to function independently will strengthen muscles and promote healing.
• B. The client needs privacy at times for self-reflection and organizing life.
• C. The client’s sense of loss can be lessened through retaining control of some areas of life.
• D. Performing ADLs is a requirement prior to discharge from an acute care facility.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. In situations like terminal illness, allowing clients to perform activities of daily living (ADLs) can help maintain their sense of control and dignity, providing comfort and a sense of normalcy amidst their health challenges. Choice A is incorrect because in a terminal stage, the focus is not on muscle strength or promoting physical healing but rather on enhancing the client's emotional well-being. Choice B, while highlighting the importance of privacy, is not directly addressing the client's need for control and autonomy. Choice D is incorrect as the priority in this scenario is not related to discharge requirements but rather the client's emotional and psychological needs during their terminal illness.

5. The client with congestive heart failure (CHF) is receiving furosemide (Lasix). Which laboratory value should the healthcare provider monitor closely?

• A. Potassium
• B. Sodium
• C. Calcium
• D. Magnesium

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct! When a client is taking furosemide (Lasix), monitoring potassium levels is crucial due to the potential for hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss through increased urine output. Low potassium levels can predispose the client to cardiac dysrhythmias. Sodium, calcium, and magnesium levels are not typically affected by furosemide to the same extent as potassium, making them less critical to monitor in this scenario.

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