Nursing Elites

1. A client with major depressive disorder is prescribed a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). Which side effect should the nurse educate the client about?

• A. Hypertension.
• B. Sexual dysfunction.
• C. Increased appetite.
• D. Weight gain.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Sexual dysfunction. Sexual dysfunction is a common side effect of SSRIs. While hypertension (A) can occur with other medications, it is not typically associated with SSRIs. Increased appetite (C) and weight gain (D) are potential side effects of some antidepressants, but sexual dysfunction is more specific to SSRIs. Therefore, the nurse should educate the client about the risk of sexual dysfunction when taking an SSRI.

2. A client with Alzheimer's disease is becoming increasingly agitated and combative in the late afternoon. What is the most appropriate intervention?

• A. Offer a sedative medication to calm the client.
• B. Encourage the client to rest in a quiet, low-stimulation environment.
• C. Use reality orientation to reduce confusion.
• D. Engage the client in physical activity to reduce agitation.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Encouraging the client to rest in a quiet, low-stimulation environment is the most appropriate intervention for a client with Alzheimer's disease who is becoming agitated and combative in the late afternoon. This approach helps reduce agitation and prevent overstimulation, providing a calming and soothing environment for the client. Offering a sedative medication (Choice A) should be avoided as it may have side effects and should only be considered as a last resort. Reality orientation (Choice C) may increase confusion and distress in clients with advanced Alzheimer's disease. Engaging the client in physical activity (Choice D) could potentially escalate the agitation rather than reduce it in this scenario.

3. A client with schizophrenia is being treated with haloperidol (Haldol). The LPN/LVN observes the client pacing in the hallway and appearing anxious. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Ask the client to sit down and relax.
• B. Administer a PRN dose of antipsychotic medication.
• C. Encourage the client to talk about what is making him anxious.
• D. Monitor the client for adverse reactions to the medication.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering a PRN dose of antipsychotic medication is the first action the nurse should take to manage symptoms of anxiety in a client being treated with haloperidol. The priority is to address the client's escalating anxiety and pacing behavior, which can be managed effectively by providing additional antipsychotic medication. Asking the client to sit down and relax (Choice A) may not be effective if the anxiety is due to inadequate medication levels. Encouraging the client to talk about what is making him anxious (Choice C) may not be beneficial in this acute situation and can be considered after addressing the immediate need for symptom management. Monitoring for adverse reactions (Choice D) is important but is not the first action to take when the client is showing signs of increasing anxiety and agitation.

4. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with major depressive disorder who is prescribed fluoxetine (Prozac). What is the most important teaching point for the nurse to include?

• A. You may experience dizziness, so avoid driving.
• B. It may take several weeks to feel the full effect of the medication.
• C. Avoid foods high in tyramine while taking this medication.
• D. Take this medication only when you feel depressed.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because SSRIs like fluoxetine typically take several weeks to reach their full therapeutic effect, so it's important to set realistic expectations for the client. Choice A is incorrect as dizziness is a common side effect but not the most important teaching point. Choice C is incorrect as avoiding tyramine-rich foods is more relevant for MAOIs. Choice D is incorrect as fluoxetine should be taken consistently, not only when the client feels depressed, to maintain therapeutic blood levels.

5. What is the priority intervention for a client with major depressive disorder admitted to the psychiatric unit with suicidal ideation?

• A. Conduct a thorough suicide risk assessment.
• B. Encourage the client to verbalize their feelings.
• C. Provide the client with positive affirmations.
• D. Refer the client to group therapy.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to conduct a thorough suicide risk assessment. When a client with major depressive disorder presents with suicidal ideation, the priority is to assess the level of risk to ensure the client's safety. This assessment helps determine the appropriate interventions, level of care, and monitoring needed. Encouraging the client to verbalize their feelings (choice B) is important, but not the priority when immediate safety is a concern. Providing positive affirmations (choice C) and referring the client to group therapy (choice D) may be beneficial interventions later on but do not address the immediate risk of harm to the client.

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