Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is reviewing the immunization schedule of an 11-month-old infant. What immunizations does the nurse expect the infant to have previously received?

• A. Pertussis, tetanus, polio, and measles
• B. Diphtheria, pertussis, tetanus, and polio
• C. Rubella, polio, tuberculosis, and pertussis
• D. Measles, mumps, rubella, and tuberculosis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Diphtheria, pertussis, tetanus, and polio. By 11 months of age, infants should have received doses of these vaccines as part of the immunization schedule. Choice A is incorrect because measles is usually given later in the schedule. Choice C is incorrect as rubella is usually given as part of the MMR vaccine, not individually, and tuberculosis is not routinely given as a vaccine in early infancy. Choice D is incorrect because mumps is not part of the recommended vaccines at 11 months of age.

2. The nurse is reviewing the laboratory test results of a child diagnosed with disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). What would the nurse interpret as indicative of this disorder?

• A. Shortened prothrombin time
• B. Increased fibrinogen level
• C. Positive fibrin split products
• D. Increased platelets

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Positive fibrin split products are indicative of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). In DIC, there is widespread clotting and subsequent consumption of clotting factors, leading to the formation of fibrin split products. A shortened prothrombin time (Choice A) is not typically seen in DIC as it indicates faster clotting, which is opposite to the pathophysiology of DIC. An increased fibrinogen level (Choice B) may be observed in the early stages of DIC due to the compensatory increase in production, but it is not a definitive indicator. Increased platelets (Choice D) may be seen in the early stages of DIC due to the body's attempt to compensate for clot formation, but it is not a specific finding for DIC.

3. A 4-year-old child is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of epiglottitis. What is the priority nursing intervention?

• A. Administer antibiotics
• B. Provide humidified oxygen
• C. Keep the child NPO
• D. Position the child upright

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The priority nursing intervention for a 4-year-old child admitted with epiglottitis is to keep the child NPO (nothing by mouth). This is crucial to prevent further airway compromise due to the inflamed epiglottis. Administering antibiotics may be necessary but is not the priority at this moment. Providing humidified oxygen can support oxygenation but does not address the immediate risk of airway obstruction. Positioning the child upright may help with breathing but does not address the risk of aspiration. Keeping the child NPO is essential to maintain a patent airway and prevent complications associated with epiglottitis.

4. After surgery to correct hypertrophic pyloric stenosis (HPS) in a 3-week-old infant who had been formula-fed, which postoperative feeding order is appropriate?

• A. Thickened formula 24 hours after surgery
• B. Withholding feedings for the first 24 hours
• C. Regular formula feeding within 24 hours after surgery
• D. Additional glucose feedings as desired after the first 24 hours

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Following surgery for hypertrophic pyloric stenosis (HPS) in infants, it is appropriate to resume regular formula feeding within 24 hours postoperatively to support recovery. This helps maintain adequate nutrition and hydration for the infant. Choice A is incorrect because thickened formula may not be necessary and could potentially cause issues postoperatively. Choice B is incorrect as withholding feedings for the first 24 hours can lead to nutritional deficiencies and delay recovery. Choice D is inappropriate as additional glucose feedings are not typically indicated postoperatively for infants with HPS and may not provide the necessary nutrition needed for recovery.

5. The nurse is caring for an infant with candidal diaper rash. Which topical agent would the nurse expect the healthcare provider to order?

• A. Corticosteroids.
• B. Antifungals.
• C. Antibiotics.
• D. Retinoids.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Antifungals. Candidal diaper rash is caused by a yeast infection and is best treated with antifungal agents. Corticosteroids (choice A) may worsen fungal infections by suppressing the immune response. Antibiotics (choice C) are used to treat bacterial infections, not fungal infections like candidal diaper rash. Retinoids (choice D) are not typically used to treat candidal diaper rash in infants; they are more commonly used for dermatological conditions like acne.

Similar Questions