Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is reviewing the immunization schedule of an 11-month-old infant. What immunizations does the nurse expect the infant to have previously received?

• A. Pertussis, tetanus, polio, and measles
• B. Diphtheria, pertussis, tetanus, and polio
• C. Rubella, polio, tuberculosis, and pertussis
• D. Measles, mumps, rubella, and tuberculosis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Diphtheria, pertussis, tetanus, and polio. By 11 months of age, infants should have received doses of these vaccines as part of the immunization schedule. Choice A is incorrect because measles is usually given later in the schedule. Choice C is incorrect as rubella is usually given as part of the MMR vaccine, not individually, and tuberculosis is not routinely given as a vaccine in early infancy. Choice D is incorrect because mumps is not part of the recommended vaccines at 11 months of age.

2. When assessing a 2-year-old child with abdominal pain and adequate perfusion, general guidelines include

• A. examining the child in the parent's arms
• B. palpating the painful area of the abdomen first
• C. placing the child supine and palpating the abdomen
• D. separating the child from the parent to ensure a reliable examination

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing a 2-year-old child with abdominal pain and adequate perfusion, it is essential to examine the child in the parent's arms. This approach helps reduce anxiety, provide comfort, and establish trust with the child. Palpating the painful area of the abdomen first (Choice B) may cause discomfort and increase anxiety in the child. Placing the child supine and palpating the abdomen (Choice C) without considering the child's comfort and security may lead to resistance and inaccurate assessment. Separating the child from the parent (Choice D) can exacerbate the child's anxiety and hinder the examination process. Therefore, examining the child in the parent's arms is the most appropriate approach in this scenario.

3. A healthcare provider is assessing a child with suspected rheumatic fever. What clinical manifestation is the provider likely to observe?

• A. Jaundice
• B. Peeling skin on the hands and feet
• C. High fever
• D. Severe joint pain

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Severe joint pain is a classic symptom of rheumatic fever, resulting from inflammation of the joints. Rheumatic fever primarily affects the joints, heart, skin, and the central nervous system. Jaundice (Choice A) is not typically associated with rheumatic fever. Peeling skin on the hands and feet (Choice B) is more characteristic of conditions like Kawasaki disease. While high fever (Choice C) can be present in rheumatic fever, it is not as specific or characteristic as severe joint pain.

4. When working with a couple at risk of bearing a child with a genetic abnormality, what is most important for the nurse to incorporate into the plan of care?

• A. Gathering information from at least three generations
• B. Informing the couple of the need for a wide range of information
• C. Maintaining the confidentiality of the information
• D. Presenting the information in a nondirective manner

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When counseling a couple at risk of genetic abnormalities, it is crucial to present information in a nondirective manner. This approach allows the couple to make informed decisions without feeling pressured or influenced. Gathering information from at least three generations (Choice A) may be relevant for genetic counseling but is not the most critical aspect in this scenario. Informing the couple of the need for a wide range of information (Choice B) is too general and does not address the specific approach needed in this situation. Maintaining the confidentiality of the information (Choice C) is important but not the top priority compared to presenting information in a nondirective manner.

5. A 3-year-old child with a history of frequent respiratory infections is being evaluated for cystic fibrosis. What diagnostic test should the nurse anticipate will be ordered?

• A. Chest X-ray
• B. Sweat chloride test
• C. Pulmonary function test
• D. Sputum culture

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The sweat chloride test is the gold standard diagnostic test for cystic fibrosis as it measures the concentration of chloride in sweat. In cystic fibrosis, there is an abnormal transport of chloride across epithelial membranes, leading to elevated sweat chloride levels. A chest X-ray may show characteristic changes in the lungs associated with cystic fibrosis, but it is not a definitive diagnostic test. Pulmonary function tests assess lung function but do not specifically diagnose cystic fibrosis. Sputum culture may identify respiratory infections but does not confirm the diagnosis of cystic fibrosis.

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