Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is reviewing the immunization schedule of an 11-month-old infant. What immunizations does the nurse expect the infant to have previously received?

• A. Pertussis, tetanus, polio, and measles
• B. Diphtheria, pertussis, tetanus, and polio
• C. Rubella, polio, tuberculosis, and pertussis
• D. Measles, mumps, rubella, and tuberculosis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Diphtheria, pertussis, tetanus, and polio. By 11 months of age, infants should have received doses of these vaccines as part of the immunization schedule. Choice A is incorrect because measles is usually given later in the schedule. Choice C is incorrect as rubella is usually given as part of the MMR vaccine, not individually, and tuberculosis is not routinely given as a vaccine in early infancy. Choice D is incorrect because mumps is not part of the recommended vaccines at 11 months of age.

2. When developing the plan of care for a child with cerebral palsy, which treatment would the nurse expect as least likely?

• A. Skeletal traction
• B. Physical therapy
• C. Orthotics
• D. Occupational therapy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In caring for a child with cerebral palsy, skeletal traction is least likely to be a part of the treatment plan. Cerebral palsy is a neurological disorder affecting movement and muscle coordination, and skeletal traction, which involves applying a pulling force on a bone to correct alignment, is not a common intervention for this condition. Physical therapy, orthotics, and occupational therapy are more commonly used in the management of cerebral palsy. Physical therapy helps improve mobility and strength, orthotics assist in supporting and aligning the body, and occupational therapy focuses on enhancing daily living skills and independence. Therefore, skeletal traction is the least likely treatment option among the choices provided.

3. A nurse is caring for an infant with a tentative diagnosis of hypertrophic pyloric stenosis (HPS). What is most important for the nurse to assess?

• A. Quality of the cry
• B. Signs of dehydration
• C. Coughing up feedings
• D. Characteristics of the stool

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Signs of dehydration. Infants with hypertrophic pyloric stenosis (HPS) are at high risk of dehydration due to frequent vomiting. Assessing for signs of dehydration, such as decreased urine output, dry mucous membranes, and sunken fontanelles, is crucial for early intervention and management. Choices A, C, and D are not the most critical assessments for HPS. The quality of the cry (choice A) may not provide as much relevant information in this case. Coughing up of feedings (choice C) may be a symptom but is not as crucial as assessing for dehydration. Characteristics of the stool (choice D) are important but assessing for signs of dehydration takes precedence due to the immediate risk it poses to the infant's health.

4. The nurse is assessing a 9-year-old girl with a history of tuberculosis at age 6 years. She has been losing weight and has no appetite. The nurse suspects Addison disease based on which assessment findings?

• A. Arrested height and increased weight
• B. Thin, fragile skin and multiple bruises
• C. Hyperpigmentation and hypotension
• D. Blurred vision and enuresis

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a child with suspected Addison disease, the presence of hyperpigmentation (bronzing of the skin) and hypotension are key clinical findings. Hyperpigmentation is due to increased ACTH stimulation, resulting in melanocyte stimulation. Hypotension occurs due to decreased aldosterone production and subsequent sodium loss. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Arrested height and increased weight are not typical of Addison disease; thin, fragile skin and multiple bruises are more indicative of conditions like Cushing's syndrome; blurred vision and enuresis are not typically associated with Addison disease.

5. During a clinical conference with a group of nursing students, the instructor is describing burn classifications. The instructor determines that the teaching has been successful when the group identifies what as characteristic of full-thickness burns?

• A. Skin that is reddened, dry, and slightly swollen
• B. Skin appearing wet with significant pain
• C. Skin with blistering and swelling
• D. Skin that is leathery and dry with some numbness

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Full-thickness burns, also known as third-degree burns, are characterized by a leathery, dry appearance with numbness due to nerve damage. This type of burn extends through all layers of the skin, affecting nerve endings. Choice A describes characteristics of superficial partial-thickness burns, which involve the epidermis and part of the dermis. Choice B describes characteristics of superficial burns, or first-degree burns, which only affect the epidermis. Choice C describes characteristics of superficial to mid-dermal burns, also known as second-degree burns, which involve the epidermis and part of the dermis but do not extend through all skin layers. Therefore, the correct answer is D.

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