when you attempt to assess a 22 year old woman who has been sexually assaulted she orders you not to touch her your most appropriate initial action sh
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

LPN Pediatrics

1. When you attempt to assess a 22-year-old woman who has been sexually assaulted, she orders you not to touch her. Your MOST appropriate initial action should be to:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In cases of sexual assault, it's important to respect the patient's wishes and provide a female EMT to attempt the assessment if the patient prefers.

2. An 18-month-old child presents with fever, nasal flaring, intercostal retractions, and a respiratory rate of 50 bpm. What is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this case, the child is showing signs of respiratory distress, such as nasal flaring, intercostal retractions, and an increased respiratory rate. These are indicative of an ineffective breathing pattern. The child's compromised respiratory function requires immediate attention and intervention, making 'Ineffective breathing pattern' the most appropriate nursing diagnosis. Choices A, C, and D do not address the respiratory distress the child is experiencing and are not the priority in this situation.

3. How would you classify a child at two years of age who has fast breathing without chest indrawing or stridor when calm?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In pediatric clinical assessment, a child at two years of age with fast breathing but without chest indrawing or stridor when calm is classified as having pneumonia. Fast breathing in this context is a key symptom used in the Integrated Management of Childhood Illness (IMCI) guidelines to diagnose pneumonia in children under five years old. The absence of chest indrawing or stridor when the child is calm helps differentiate this case from other respiratory conditions, making pneumonia the likely classification. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. 'Very severe disease' is too broad and not specific to the symptoms described. 'No pneumonia' is also incorrect as the symptoms match the presentation of pneumonia. 'Local infection' is too vague and does not specifically address the respiratory symptoms observed.

4. What is a non-pharmacological management option for measles?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Tepid sponging is a non-pharmacological management option for measles. It helps reduce fever and discomfort by using lukewarm water to gently sponge the body. This method is commonly used to alleviate symptoms associated with measles. Oral hygiene and eye care are important for overall health but do not directly manage measles symptoms like tepid sponging does. Choice D, N/A, is incorrect as there are non-pharmacological management options available for measles.

5. Kobby, who is diagnosed with diabetes mellitus type 1, displays symptoms of hypoglycemia; which of the following actions should the nurse instruct the parents to take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During hypoglycemia, it is crucial to quickly raise blood glucose levels. Giving a simple sugar like honey is recommended as it can rapidly increase blood sugar levels and alleviate the symptoms of hypoglycemia in individuals with diabetes mellitus type 1. Milk, being a complex sugar, will not act as quickly as honey in raising blood sugar levels. Contacting the healthcare provider may lead to a delay in treatment, as immediate action is necessary during hypoglycemia. Withholding food or drink (choice D) is not appropriate when dealing with hypoglycemia as it can worsen the condition.

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