Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is reviewing a plan of care for a client who was admitted with dehydration as a result of prolonged watery diarrhea. Which prescription should the healthcare professional question?

• A. Oral psyllium (Metamucil)
• B. Oral potassium supplement
• C. Parenteral half normal saline
• D. Parenteral albumin (Albuminar)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Parenteral albumin (Albuminar). Parenteral albumin is not typically indicated for dehydration resulting from diarrhea. In this case, fluid replacement therapy with intravenous fluids such as parenteral half normal saline would be more appropriate. Oral psyllium and oral potassium supplement are not the primary interventions for managing dehydration due to watery diarrhea. Oral psyllium is a fiber supplement used for constipation rather than diarrhea. Oral potassium supplements may be necessary if potassium levels are low due to dehydration, but the priority is fluid replacement. Therefore, choices A and B are less relevant in this scenario.

2. A client with a prescription for a clear liquid diet is receiving teaching about food choices from a nurse. Which of the following selections by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. Gelatin
• B. Whole milk
• C. Cream soups
• D. Orange juice

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Gelatin. Gelatin is suitable for a clear liquid diet because it is transparent and free of solid particles. Clear liquid diets are designed to be easily digested and leave minimal residue in the gastrointestinal tract. Choices B, C, and D are not appropriate for a clear liquid diet. Whole milk, cream soups, and orange juice contain solid particles or pulp, which are not allowed on a clear liquid diet. Whole milk and cream soups are not clear liquids as they contain milk solids and vegetable particles respectively. Orange juice contains pulp, which is not part of a clear liquid diet. It is important for clients to follow dietary restrictions to achieve the intended therapeutic outcomes.

3. A client has a sodium level of 125. What findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Abdominal cramping
• B. Elevated blood pressure
• C. Decreased heart rate
• D. Increased thirst

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Low sodium levels (hyponatremia) often present with various symptoms, including abdominal cramping. Abdominal cramping is a common manifestation of hyponatremia due to the altered electrolyte balance. Option B ('Elevated blood pressure') is incorrect because low sodium levels typically lead to decreased blood pressure, not elevated. Option C ('Decreased heart rate') is incorrect as low sodium levels are more likely to cause an irregular heart rate rather than a decreased heart rate. Option D ('Increased thirst') is incorrect because excessive thirst is more commonly associated with high sodium levels (hypernatremia) rather than low sodium levels.

4. While providing care to a group of patients, which patient should the nurse prioritize seeing first?

• A. A patient with a hip replacement on prolonged bed rest reporting chest pain and dyspnea
• B. A bedridden patient with a reddened area on the buttocks who needs to be turned
• C. A patient on bed rest with renal calculi who needs to go to the bathroom
• D. A patient post-knee surgery who needs range of motion exercises

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should prioritize seeing the patient with a hip replacement on prolonged bed rest reporting chest pain and dyspnea first. This patient is at higher risk for deep vein thrombosis due to prolonged bed rest, which can lead to a life-threatening embolus. Chest pain and dyspnea could also indicate a potential pulmonary embolism, which requires immediate assessment and intervention. The other patients, while requiring care, do not present with symptoms that suggest an immediate life-threatening situation, making them lower priority at this time. Therefore, option A is the correct choice as it addresses a potentially critical condition that requires immediate attention.

5. A client with chronic kidney disease is receiving epoetin alfa (Epogen). Which laboratory value should the LPN/LVN monitor to determine the effectiveness of this medication?

• A. Serum potassium
• B. Hemoglobin
• C. Serum creatinine
• D. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hemoglobin. Monitoring hemoglobin levels is essential to assess the effectiveness of epoetin alfa in clients with chronic kidney disease. Epoetin alfa is a medication that stimulates red blood cell production, aiming to increase hemoglobin levels and improve symptoms of anemia in these patients. Monitoring serum potassium (Choice A) is important in clients with kidney disease, but it is more related to assessing electrolyte balance rather than the direct effectiveness of epoetin alfa. Serum creatinine (Choice C) and blood urea nitrogen (Choice D) are kidney function tests that help evaluate kidney health but do not specifically reflect the effectiveness of epoetin alfa therapy.

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