Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer a subcutaneous injection of heparin. Which site is most appropriate for the healthcare provider to use?

• A. Deltoid muscle
• B. Ventrogluteal site
• C. Abdomen
• D. Dorsogluteal site

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The abdomen is the most appropriate site for administering subcutaneous heparin injections. The abdomen has a layer of subcutaneous fat and a good blood supply, making it an ideal site for subcutaneous injections. Using the deltoid muscle for heparin injections is not appropriate as it is typically used for intramuscular injections. The ventrogluteal site is more suitable for intramuscular injections rather than subcutaneous injections. The dorsogluteal site is no longer recommended for injections due to the risk of injury to the sciatic nerve.

2. A nurse on a rehabilitation unit is preparing to transfer a client who is unable to walk from bed to a wheelchair. Which of the following techniques should the nurse use?

• A. Place the wheelchair at a 45-degree angle to the bed
• B. Position the wheelchair parallel to the bed
• C. Place the wheelchair in front of the bed
• D. Have the client stand and pivot into the wheelchair

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Placing the wheelchair at a 45-degree angle to the bed is the correct technique for transferring a client who is unable to walk from bed to a wheelchair. This positioning facilitates a safer and easier transfer by providing more space for maneuvering and reducing the distance the client needs to be moved. Positioning the wheelchair parallel to the bed (Choice B) may make the transfer more challenging due to limited space and a longer distance to move the client. Placing the wheelchair in front of the bed (Choice C) may not provide an optimal angle for the transfer. Having the client stand and pivot into the wheelchair (Choice D) is not appropriate for a client who is unable to walk and could increase the risk of falls or injuries during the transfer.

3. A client is scheduled for an IVP (Intravenous Pyelogram). Which of the following data from the client's history indicates a potential hazard for this test?

• A. Reflex incontinence
• B. Allergic to shellfish
• C. Claustrophobia
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, 'Allergic to shellfish.' An allergy to shellfish can indicate a sensitivity to iodine, which is used in the contrast dye for an IVP, posing a risk of an allergic reaction. Reflex incontinence (Choice A) is not directly related to the potential hazard of an IVP. Claustrophobia (Choice C) and hypertension (Choice D) are also not significant factors that indicate a potential hazard for an IVP.

4. An 80-year-old client admitted with a diagnosis of a possible cerebral vascular accident has had a blood pressure ranging from 180/110 to 160/100 over the past 2 hours. The nurse has also noted increased lethargy. Which assessment finding should the nurse report immediately to the healthcare provider?

• A. Slurred speech
• B. Incontinence
• C. Muscle weakness
• D. Rapid pulse

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Slurred speech is a classic sign of a worsening stroke, suggesting a potential blockage or hemorrhage affecting speech centers in the brain. Prompt reporting of this symptom to the healthcare provider is crucial for immediate evaluation and intervention. While incontinence (Choice B) is important to monitor, it is not considered an immediate priority over slurred speech in this context. Muscle weakness (Choice C) and rapid pulse (Choice D) are also relevant in stroke assessment, but slurred speech takes precedence due to its strong association with neurological deficits in the setting of a possible cerebral vascular accident.

5. A client has right-sided paralysis following a cerebrovascular accident. Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse anticipate to prevent a plantar flexion contracture of the affected extremity?

• A. Ankle-foot orthotic
• B. Continuous passive motion machine
• C. Abduction splint
• D. Sequential compression device

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An ankle-foot orthotic is the correct choice to prevent a plantar flexion contracture in a paralyzed limb. An ankle-foot orthotic helps maintain proper alignment of the foot and ankle, preventing the foot from being permanently fixed in a pointed-down position. Continuous passive motion machines are typically used to promote joint movement after surgery and would not address the prevention of contractures in this case. Abduction splints are used to keep the legs apart and would not address the specific issue described. Sequential compression devices are used to prevent deep vein thrombosis by promoting circulation in the lower extremities and are not indicated for preventing plantar flexion contractures.

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