Nursing Elites

1. A client is still experiencing mild back pain after receiving analgesia 1 hour ago. Which of the following nonpharmacological pain management techniques should the nurse include in the plan?

• A. Encourage the client to apply a heating pad for 2 hours at a time
• B. Apply an ice pack to the client’s back for 1 hour
• C. Remove distractions from the client’s room
• D. Instruct the client to take deep, rhythmic breaths

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should instruct the client to take deep, rhythmic breaths as a nonpharmacological pain management technique. Deep, rhythmic breathing helps with relaxation and pain management, potentially reducing the perception of pain. Encouraging the client to apply a heating pad for 2 hours at a time (Choice A) is not recommended as prolonged heat application can lead to tissue damage and is not suitable for mild back pain. Applying an ice pack for 1 hour (Choice B) may not be appropriate for mild back pain as cold therapy is more commonly used for acute injuries. Removing distractions from the client’s room (Choice C) may help create a more calming environment, but it does not directly address the client's pain.

2. A client reports abdominal pain. An assessment by the nurse reveals a temperature of 39.2 degrees C (102 degrees F), heart rate of 105/min, a soft tender abdomen, and menses overdue by 2 days. Which of the following findings should be the nurse's priority?

• A. Temperature
• B. Heart rate
• C. Abdominal tenderness
• D. Overdue menses

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse's priority should be the client's temperature. A high temperature of 39.2 degrees C (102 degrees F) indicates a potential infection or inflammation that requires immediate attention. While heart rate and abdominal tenderness are important assessments, the temperature takes precedence as it signals a more urgent issue. Overdue menses, although significant, are not the priority in this scenario when compared to the possibility of an acute infection or inflammatory process.

3. A male client being discharged with a prescription for the bronchodilator theophylline tells the nurse that he understands he is to take three doses of the medication each day. Since timed-release capsules are not available at the time of discharge, which dosing schedule should the LPN advise the client to follow?

• A. 9 a.m., 1 p.m., and 5 p.m.
• B. 8 a.m., 4 p.m., and midnight.
• C. Before breakfast, before lunch, and before dinner.
• D. With breakfast, with lunch, and with dinner.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct dosing schedule for the client to follow is to take the medication at 8 a.m., 4 p.m., and midnight. This timing spaces the doses evenly over the waking hours, ensuring consistent therapeutic levels of the medication. Choice A (9 a.m., 1 p.m., and 5 p.m.) does not evenly distribute the doses throughout the day. Choices C (Before breakfast, before lunch, and before dinner) and D (With breakfast, with lunch, and with dinner) do not provide the required frequency of dosing needed for optimal therapeutic effect.

4. A nurse in a provider's office is collecting information from an older adult who reports that he has been taking acetaminophen 500 mg/day for severe joint pain. The nurse should instruct the client that large doses of acetaminophen could cause which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Liver damage
• B. Renal failure
• C. Gastric bleeding
• D. Heart attack

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: Large doses of acetaminophen can cause liver damage, which is a known adverse effect of the medication. Acetaminophen is metabolized in the liver, and excessive amounts can overwhelm the liver's ability to process it, leading to hepatotoxicity. Renal failure (Choice B) is not typically associated with acetaminophen use. Gastric bleeding (Choice C) is more commonly linked to nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) rather than acetaminophen. Heart attack (Choice D) is not a recognized adverse effect of acetaminophen, which primarily affects the liver when taken in large amounts.

5. The healthcare provider is assessing a client who has a chest tube in place following a pneumothorax. Which finding should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. Bubbling in the water seal chamber
• B. Drainage greater than 70 ml/hour
• C. Tidaling in the water seal chamber
• D. Absence of breath sounds on the affected side

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The absence of breath sounds on the affected side is a critical finding that may indicate a tension pneumothorax, a life-threatening condition requiring immediate intervention. This situation can lead to a shift of the mediastinum and impaired ventilation. Bubbling in the water seal chamber is an expected finding in a chest tube drainage system and indicates proper functioning. Drainage greater than 70 ml/hour is a concern but does not require immediate reporting unless it continues at a high rate or is associated with other symptoms. Tidaling in the water seal chamber is a normal fluctuation and indicates the chest tube system is patent and functioning correctly.

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