HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Exam
1. A healthcare professional is planning to collect a liquid stool specimen from a client for ova and parasites. Inaccurate test results may result if the healthcare professional:
- A. Refrigerates the collected specimen
- B. Collects the specimen in a sterile container
- C. Delays the collection of the specimen
- D. Uses a non-contaminated collection container
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Refrigeration can kill the ova and parasites present in the stool specimen, leading to inaccurate test results. Storing the specimen in a cold environment can disrupt the integrity of the parasites and ova, affecting the accuracy of the test. Collecting the specimen in a sterile container (Choice B) is the correct procedure to prevent external contamination. Delaying the collection of the specimen (Choice C) may affect the freshness of the sample but does not directly impact the test results. Using a non-contaminated collection container (Choice D) is essential to maintain the sample's integrity but does not relate to the risk of killing ova and parasites through refrigeration.
2. A health care provider has prescribed isoniazid (Laniazid) for a client. Which instruction should the LPN give the client about this medication?
- A. Prolonged use does not typically cause dark concentrated urine.
- B. It is not necessary to take the medication on an empty stomach for optimal absorption.
- C. Avoid taking the medication with aluminum hydroxide to minimize GI upset.
- D. Drinking alcohol daily can cause drug-induced hepatitis.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. When taking isoniazid, alcohol consumption should be avoided as it can increase the risk of liver damage, potentially leading to drug-induced hepatitis. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Prolonged use of isoniazid does not typically cause dark concentrated urine; it is not necessary to take the medication on an empty stomach for optimal absorption; and it is not recommended to take isoniazid with aluminum hydroxide to minimize GI upset.
3. When reviewing car seat use with the parents of a 1-month-old infant, which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Use a car seat that has a three-point harness system.
- B. Position the car seat so that the infant is rear-facing.
- C. Secure the car seat in the front passenger seat of the vehicle.
- D. Convert to a booster seat after 12 months.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction for car seat use with a 1-month-old infant is to position the car seat so that the infant is rear-facing. This orientation provides the safest option for infants as it supports their head, neck, and spine. While using a car seat with a three-point harness system is appropriate for infants, placing the car seat in the front passenger seat is not recommended due to the presence of airbags, which can pose a risk to the infant in the event of deployment. Additionally, transitioning to a booster seat is not suitable at 12 months; infants should remain in rear-facing car seats until they outgrow the seat's height or weight limits, typically around 2 years of age.
4. A parent asks a nurse about his infant's expected physical development during the first year of life. Which of the following information should the nurse include?
- A. A 10-month-old infant can pull up to a standing position.
- B. A 6-month-old infant can walk with assistance.
- C. A 12-month-old infant can jump with both feet.
- D. An 8-month-old infant can crawl on hands and knees.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. By 10 months, infants can typically pull up to a standing position as part of their physical development. Walking with assistance usually begins around 9-12 months, not at 6 months (choice B). Jumping with both feet is a skill that usually develops around 24 months, not at 12 months (choice C). Crawling on hands and knees typically starts around 6-9 months, not at 8 months (choice D). Therefore, the most accurate information to include for an infant's expected physical development at 10 months is the ability to pull up to a standing position.
5. The nurse is caring for a 4-year-old 2 hours after tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy. Which of the following assessments must be reported immediately?
- A. Vomiting of dark emesis
- B. Complaints of throat pain
- C. Apical heart rate of 110
- D. Increased restlessness
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Increased restlessness must be reported immediately as it may indicate bleeding or other complications post-tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy. This could be a sign of a developing issue that requires urgent intervention. Vomiting of dark emesis, complaints of throat pain, and an apical heart rate of 110 are important to monitor but do not indicate an immediate need for reporting as compared to the potential seriousness of increased restlessness in this scenario.
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