Nursing Elites

1. A nurse observes an assistive personnel (AP) preparing to obtain blood pressure with a regular size cuff for a client who is obese. Which of the following explanations should the nurse give the AP?

• A. Using a cuff that is too small will result in an inaccurately high reading.
• B. Using a cuff that is too large will result in an inaccurately low reading.
• C. The regular size cuff is appropriate for all clients.
• D. You should use a cuff of any size as long as it fits.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Using a cuff that is too small will result in an inaccurately high reading.' When obtaining blood pressure for an obese client, it is crucial to use a larger cuff to ensure an accurate reading. Choice B is incorrect because using a cuff that is too large for an obese client would actually result in an inaccurately low reading. Choice C is incorrect as a regular size cuff is not appropriate for obese clients due to their larger arm circumference. Choice D is incorrect because using a cuff of any size as long as it fits is not suitable for obtaining accurate blood pressure readings on an obese client.

2. Following surgery on the neck, the client asks the LPN why the head of the bed is up so high. The LPN should tell the client that the high-Fowler position is preferred for what reason?

• A. To reduce strain on the incision
• B. To promote drainage of the wound
• C. To provide stimulation for the client
• D. To reduce edema at the operative site

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The high-Fowler position is preferred after neck surgery to reduce edema at the operative site. Elevating the head of the bed promotes venous return and drainage, aiding in decreasing swelling and fluid accumulation, which helps reduce edema at the operative site. Choice A is incorrect as the main purpose is not solely about reducing strain on the incision. Choice B is incorrect because while drainage may occur, it is not the primary reason for maintaining the high-Fowler position. Choice C is incorrect as providing stimulation is not the primary rationale for positioning the client in high-Fowler.

3. A client is receiving teaching from a healthcare provider about reducing the adverse effects of immobility. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will perform ankle and knee exercises every hour - Range of motion (ROM) is needed to prevent contractures.
• B. I will hold my breath when rising from a sitting position.
• C. I will remove my antiembolic stockings while I am in bed.
• D. I will have my partner help me change positions every 4 hours.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Choice A is correct because performing ankle and knee exercises every hour helps prevent contractures and other adverse effects of immobility. Contractures are a common complication of immobility, and range of motion (ROM) exercises can help maintain joint flexibility and prevent contractures. This statement indicates an understanding of the teaching provided by the healthcare provider. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Holding the breath when rising from a sitting position can increase the risk of orthostatic hypotension, not reduce adverse effects of immobility. Removing antiembolic stockings while in bed can compromise their effectiveness in preventing deep vein thrombosis (DVT), which is not a measure to reduce immobility-related complications. Having a partner help change positions every 4 hours may not be frequent enough to prevent immobility-related complications effectively; changing positions more frequently is usually recommended to prevent issues like pressure ulcers and muscle stiffness.

4. A client who is 3 days post-op following a cholecystectomy has yellow and thick drainage on the dressing. The nurse suspects a wound infection. The nurse identifies this type of drainage as:

• A. Purulent
• B. Serous
• C. Sanguineous
• D. Serosanguineous

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Purulent. Purulent drainage is thick, yellow, and indicates the presence of infection. This type of drainage is typically seen in infected wounds. Choice B, Serous drainage, is thin, clear, and watery, which is normal in the initial stages of wound healing. Sanguineous drainage, choice C, is bright red and indicates fresh bleeding. Serosanguineous drainage, choice D, is pale pink to red and is a mixture of blood and serous fluid commonly seen in the early stages of wound healing.

5. An occupational health nurse is caring for an employee who was exposed to an unknown dry chemical, resulting in a chemical burn. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Irrigate the affected area with running water.
• B. Wash the affected area with antibacterial soap.
• C. Brush the chemical off the skin and clothing.
• D. Leave the clothing in place until emergency personnel arrive.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for an employee exposed to an unknown dry chemical is to brush off the chemical from the skin and clothing. This helps prevent further skin contact before irrigation can be done. Irrigating the affected area with running water is crucial after brushing off the chemical to minimize the exposure. Washing the affected area with antibacterial soap is not appropriate for chemical burns, as soap can react with certain chemicals and worsen the situation. Leaving the clothing in place until emergency personnel arrive may allow the chemical to continue to harm the skin and should be avoided.

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