Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a prescription for knee-length anti-embolic stockings. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Remove the client’s stockings at least once during each shift
• B. Roll the top of the client’s stockings down to just below the knee
• C. Seat the client in a chair for 30 minutes prior to applying stockings
• D. Measure the length of the client’s leg from the heel to the gluteal fold

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to remove the client’s stockings at least once during each shift. This is important to inspect the skin and prevent complications such as pressure injuries or impaired circulation. Rolling the top of the stockings down can compromise their effectiveness in preventing blood clots. Seating the client in a chair prior to applying stockings is not directly related to the care of anti-embolic stockings. Measuring the length of the client’s leg from the heel to the gluteal fold is not necessary for the application or care of knee-length anti-embolic stockings.

2. The provider orders Lanoxin (digoxin) 0.125 mg PO and furosemide 40 mg every day. Which of these foods would the nurse reinforce for the client to eat at least daily?

• A. Spaghetti
• B. Watermelon
• C. Chicken
• D. Tomatoes

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Watermelon.' Watermelon is high in potassium, which is important to counteract the potassium loss caused by furosemide. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium depletion, so consuming potassium-rich foods like watermelon can help maintain electrolyte balance. Choices A, C, and D do not specifically address the need for potassium in this scenario and are not as beneficial for addressing the potential electrolyte imbalance caused by furosemide.

3. A healthcare professional is reviewing measures to prevent back injuries with assistive personnel (AP). Which of the following instructions should the healthcare professional include?

• A. When lifting an object, spread your feet apart to provide a wide base of support.
• B. Always lift objects with your back straight and not your legs.
• C. Avoid using any assistive devices.
• D. Bend at the waist to reach objects.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction to prevent back injuries while lifting is to spread your feet apart to provide a wide base of support. This helps in maintaining stability and reduces the risk of back injury. Choice B is incorrect as lifting objects with your back straight and using your legs is the recommended technique. Choice C is incorrect because assistive devices can actually help prevent back injuries by providing support. Choice D is incorrect as bending at the waist to reach objects can strain the back muscles and increase the risk of injury.

4. The healthcare provider is planning care for a 3-month-old infant immediately postoperative following placement of a ventriculoperitoneal shunt for hydrocephalus. The healthcare provider needs to

• A. Assess for abdominal distention
• B. Maintain the infant in an upright position
• C. Begin feeding formula when the infant is alert
• D. Pump the shunt to assess for proper function

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assessing for abdominal distention is crucial in this situation as it can indicate a complication with the shunt or fluid accumulation. Abdominal distention may suggest an issue with the shunt placement, such as obstruction or overdrainage, which requires immediate intervention. Maintaining the infant in an upright position (Choice B) is not the priority immediately postoperatively following a ventriculoperitoneal shunt placement. Beginning formula feedings when the infant is alert (Choice C) may be appropriate but is not the priority over assessing for abdominal distention. Pumping the shunt to assess for proper function (Choice D) is not a recommended nursing intervention postoperatively and should be done by a qualified healthcare provider.

5. During an admission assessment, a healthcare professional finds a client's radial pulse rate to be 68/min and the simultaneous apical pulse to be 84/min. What is the client’s pulse deficit (per minute)?

• A. 16
• B. 12
• C. 6
• D. 14

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The pulse deficit is calculated by finding the difference between the apical and radial pulse rates. In this case, the difference is 84 - 68 = 16. This indicates that there is a pulse deficit of 16 beats per minute. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the difference between the two pulse rates.

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