Nursing Elites

1. The nurse assesses a client who has a nasal cannula delivering oxygen at 2 L/min. To assess for skin damage related to the cannula, which areas should the nurse observe? (Select all that apply).

• A. Tops of the ears
• B. Bridge of the nose
• C. Around the nostrils
• D. Over the cheeks

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Around the nostrils.' Constant pressure from the tubing may create skin damage to the areas of skin and bony prominences the nasal cannula will be resting on, including around the nostrils. Choice A, 'Tops of the ears,' is incorrect as the cannula does not rest on the ears. Choice B, 'Bridge of the nose,' is incorrect because the cannula typically rests under the nose. Choice D, 'Over the cheeks,' is also incorrect as the cannula does not typically rest on the cheeks.

2. The nurse is caring for a patient who has a central venous access device (CVAD). Which action by the nurse is appropriate?

• A. Avoid using friction when cleaning around the CVAD insertion site.
• B. Use the push-pause method to flush the CVAD after giving medications.
• C. Obtain an order from the healthcare provider to change the CVAD dressing.
• D. Position the patient’s face away from the CVAD during injection cap changes.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because using the push-pause method to flush the CVAD after giving medications helps remove debris from the CVAD lumen and decreases the risk for clotting. Choice A is incorrect because friction should be used when cleaning the CVAD insertion site to decrease infection risk. Choice C is incorrect because obtaining an order from the healthcare provider to change the CVAD dressing is not necessary; the dressing should be changed when damp, loose, or visibly soiled. Choice D is incorrect because the patient should face away from the CVAD during cap changes to minimize the risk of contamination.

3. When caring for a patient with renal failure on a low phosphate diet, the nurse will inform unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) to remove which food from the patient’s food tray?

• A. Grape juice
• B. Milk carton
• C. Mixed green salad
• D. Fried chicken breast

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Milk carton. Foods high in phosphate, like milk and other dairy products, are restricted on low-phosphate diets to manage renal failure. Green, leafy vegetables, high-fat foods, and fruits/juices are not high in phosphate and are not restricted. Therefore, grape juice, mixed green salad, and fried chicken breast do not need to be removed from the patient's food tray.

4. A patient who had a transverse colectomy for diverticulosis 18 hours ago has nasogastric suction and is complaining of anxiety and incisional pain. The patient’s respiratory rate is 32 breaths/minute and the arterial blood gases (ABGs) indicate respiratory alkalosis. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Discontinue the nasogastric suction.
• B. Give the patient the PRN IV morphine sulfate 4 mg.
• C. Notify the health care provider about the ABG results.
• D. Teach the patient how to take slow, deep breaths when anxious.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The patient’s respiratory alkalosis is caused by the increased respiratory rate associated with pain and anxiety. The nurse’s first action should be to medicate the patient for pain. Although the nasogastric suction may contribute to the alkalosis, it is not appropriate to discontinue the tube when the patient needs gastric suction. The health care provider may be notified about the ABGs but is likely to instruct the nurse to medicate for pain. The patient will not be able to take slow, deep breaths when experiencing pain.

5. When assessing a pregnant patient with eclampsia who is receiving IV magnesium sulfate, which finding should the nurse report to the health care provider immediately?

• A. The bibasilar breath sounds are decreased.
• B. The patellar and triceps reflexes are absent.
• C. The patient has been sleeping most of the day.
• D. The patient reports feeling 'sick to my stomach.'

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because the absence of patellar and triceps reflexes indicates potential magnesium toxicity, requiring immediate intervention. Nausea and lethargy are common side effects of elevated magnesium levels and should be reported, but they are not as critical as the loss of deep tendon reflexes. Decreased breath sounds suggest the need for coughing and deep breathing to prevent atelectasis, which is important but not as urgent as addressing magnesium toxicity.

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