HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals 2023 Test Bank
1. A client is experiencing dyspnea and fatigue after completing morning care. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the client’s plan of care?
- A. Schedule rest periods during morning care.
- B. Discontinue morning care for 2 days.
- C. Perform all care as quickly as possible.
- D. Ask a family member to come in to bathe the client.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Scheduling rest periods during morning care is essential for managing dyspnea and fatigue in the client. This approach allows the client to pace themselves and catch their breath, promoting comfort and reducing symptoms. It is crucial to provide breaks to prevent overwhelming the client and exacerbating their symptoms. Discontinuing morning care for 2 days (choice B) is not a suitable solution as it does not address the underlying issue and may lead to neglect of essential care. Performing all care as quickly as possible (choice C) can worsen the client's symptoms and compromise their well-being by increasing stress and exertion. Asking a family member to bathe the client (choice D) does not address the need for rest periods during care and may not be feasible or appropriate in all situations.
2. The patient is prescribed cimetidine (Tagamet) orally. What should the nurse consider about administering this drug?
- A. Administer the drug with the first bite of food
- B. Administer the drug immediately after meals
- C. Administer the drug 30 minutes after meals
- D. Administer the drug 30 minutes before meals
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Cimetidine is best absorbed when taken 30 minutes before meals to decrease stomach acid. Administering it before meals allows for optimal absorption and effectiveness of the medication. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because administering cimetidine with food, immediately after meals, or 30 minutes after meals may not provide the best conditions for absorption. Taking it before meals ensures that the drug is absorbed properly and can exert its intended effects.
3. A community hospital is an example of which level of health care?
- A. Secondary level health care
- B. Primary health care
- C. Tertiary level care
- D. Intermediate level care
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A community hospital is categorized under secondary level health care. Secondary level health care facilities, like community hospitals, provide specialized outpatient care, diagnostic services, and treatment that are more complex than what is offered in primary health care settings. Choice B, primary health care, refers to basic and routine health care services typically provided by family doctors or general practitioners, which is not the level of care provided by community hospitals. Tertiary level care (choice C) involves highly specialized and complex medical services such as neurosurgery or organ transplants, which are beyond the scope of services provided by community hospitals. Intermediate level care (choice D) is not a recognized category in the hierarchy of health care levels.
4. A client with diabetes mellitus is being taught by a nurse how to perform a capillary blood glucose test. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Don sterile gloves after cleansing the site
- B. Puncture the site after cleansing and before the antiseptic dries
- C. Gently wipe the puncture site until a large droplet of blood forms
- D. Hold the finger below the heart level to puncture
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction is to puncture the site after cleansing and before the antiseptic dries. This sequence helps ensure proper blood collection without introducing contaminants. Choice A is incorrect because wearing sterile gloves is not necessary for capillary blood glucose testing. Choice C is incorrect as wiping the puncture site can introduce contaminants and alter the blood sample. Choice D is incorrect as holding the finger below the heart level is not required for a capillary blood glucose test.
5. A client is admitted with the diagnosis of myocardial infarction (MI). Which of the following lab values would be consistent with this diagnosis?
- A. Low serum albumin
- B. High serum cholesterol
- C. Abnormally low white blood cell count
- D. Elevated creatinine phosphokinase (CPK)
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Elevated creatinine phosphokinase (CPK). Elevated CPK levels indicate muscle damage, including damage to the cardiac muscle, which aligns with the diagnosis of myocardial infarction. Choice A, low serum albumin, is not directly related to myocardial infarction. Choice B, high serum cholesterol, is more associated with conditions like atherosclerosis rather than acute myocardial infarction. Choice C, abnormally low white blood cell count, is typically not a lab value associated with myocardial infarction; instead, it could suggest other conditions like infections or bone marrow issues.