a nurse is performing an admission assessment on a client the nurse determines the clients radial pulse rate is 68min and the simultaneous apical puls
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Fundamentals Exam

1. During an admission assessment, a healthcare professional finds a client's radial pulse rate to be 68/min and the simultaneous apical pulse to be 84/min. What is the client’s pulse deficit (per minute)?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The pulse deficit is calculated by finding the difference between the apical and radial pulse rates. In this case, the difference is 84 - 68 = 16. This indicates that there is a pulse deficit of 16 beats per minute. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the difference between the two pulse rates.

2. Which statement by the mother indicates that the mother understands safety precautions with her four-month-old infant and her 4-year-old child?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Choice D is the correct answer because having the 4-year-old help feed the four-month-old a bottle in the kitchen while the mother makes supper shows supervision of the infant by the older child in a safe environment. This choice indicates that the mother understands safety precautions by involving the older child in a caregiving task under her supervision. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they involve unsafe practices such as placing the infant on the floor unsupervised, positioning the infant car seat in the front seat, and not providing direct supervision of the children during naptimes.

3. A patient is placed in the Sims' position. Which areas will the nurse observe for pressure points?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a patient is placed in the Sims' position, the nurse should observe pressure points on the ileum, clavicle, humerus, knees, and ankles. Choice A is incorrect as the chin and hips are not typically pressure points in the Sims' position. Choice C is incorrect as the shoulder and anterior iliac spine are not commonly observed pressure points in this position. Choice D is also incorrect as the occipital region of the head, coccyx, and heels are not pressure points commonly associated with the Sims' position.

4. A charge nurse on an acute care unit is planning care for a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to promote the client’s continuity of care?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Starting discharge planning on the day of admission is crucial to ensuring a smooth transition and continuity of care for the client. It allows for early identification of needs, coordination of services, and timely interventions. Assigning a different nurse each shift (Choice A) can disrupt continuity of care and lead to inconsistencies in the client's treatment. Limiting the number of interdisciplinary team members (Choice B) may hinder comprehensive care coordination. Requesting a satisfaction survey at discharge (Choice C) focuses more on feedback rather than proactive care planning and coordination.

5. A client who had a cerebrovascular accident has persistent problems with dysphagia. The nurse caring for the client should initiate a referral with which of the following members of the interprofessional care team?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Speech-language pathologist. Speech-language pathologists specialize in assessing and treating dysphagia, which is a common issue following a cerebrovascular accident. They are trained to evaluate swallowing function and provide appropriate interventions to help clients improve their ability to swallow safely. Choice A, Social worker, is incorrect as their role does not typically involve addressing dysphagia specifically. Choice B, Certified nursing assistant, is not the appropriate professional to address dysphagia concerns as they do not have the training or scope of practice for this specialized area. Choice C, Occupational therapist, focuses more on activities of daily living and functional abilities rather than the specialized treatment of dysphagia.

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