a nurse is performing an admission assessment on a client the nurse determines the clients radial pulse rate is 68min and the simultaneous apical puls
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Fundamentals Exam

1. During an admission assessment, a healthcare professional finds a client's radial pulse rate to be 68/min and the simultaneous apical pulse to be 84/min. What is the client’s pulse deficit (per minute)?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The pulse deficit is calculated by finding the difference between the apical and radial pulse rates. In this case, the difference is 84 - 68 = 16. This indicates that there is a pulse deficit of 16 beats per minute. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the difference between the two pulse rates.

2. A client has a prescription for a 24-hour urine collection. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when a client has a prescription for a 24-hour urine collection is to discard the first voiding. This initial voiding is typically not collected to allow for the accurate start of the 24-hour collection period. All subsequent urine voided within the specified time frame is then collected. Including the last voiding in the collection is important to ensure that the full 24-hour period is covered. It is essential to keep the urine cool by storing it in a single container on ice to prevent degradation of components. Instructing the client to stop midstream and finish urinating into the specimen container is not required for a 24-hour urine collection and is an unnecessary step.

3. A healthcare professional is caring for a group of clients on a medical-surgical unit. Which of the following clients is at increased risk for body-image disturbances?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Clients who have undergone significant visible body changes, like amputation, are at increased risk for body-image disturbances. Amputation can have a profound impact on self-image and body perception due to the visible structural alteration. While conditions like laparoscopic appendectomy, mastectomy, and cardiac catheterization may also affect body image, they are less likely to cause significant disturbances compared to visible changes like amputation.

4. A policy requiring the removal of acrylic nails by all nursing personnel was implemented 6 months ago. Which assessment measure best determines if the intended outcome of the policy is being achieved?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Healthcare-associated infection rate. This measure best indicates the effect of the policy on infection control. By monitoring the healthcare-associated infection rate, it can be determined if the policy of removing acrylic nails has contributed to reducing the risk of infections. Choices A, B, and D are not as directly linked to the outcome of the policy. The number of staff-induced injuries may not be solely due to acrylic nails. Client satisfaction may not be directly impacted by this policy, and needle-stick injuries are more related to a different aspect of healthcare practice.

5. The clinician is assessing a client with a Stage 2 skin ulcer. Which of the following treatments is most effective to promote healing?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Applying a hydrocolloid or foam dressing is the most effective treatment to promote healing for a Stage 2 skin ulcer. These dressings create a moist environment that supports healing and prevents further tissue damage. Option A (covering the wound with a dry dressing) can lead to drying out the wound bed, hindering healing. Option B (using hydrogen peroxide soaks) can be too harsh and may damage the surrounding healthy tissue. Option C (leaving the area open to dry) can delay healing as it does not provide the necessary moist environment for optimal wound healing.

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