a nurse is performing an admission assessment on a client the nurse determines the clients radial pulse rate is 68min and the simultaneous apical puls
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Fundamentals Exam

1. During an admission assessment, a healthcare professional finds a client's radial pulse rate to be 68/min and the simultaneous apical pulse to be 84/min. What is the client’s pulse deficit (per minute)?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The pulse deficit is calculated by finding the difference between the apical and radial pulse rates. In this case, the difference is 84 - 68 = 16. This indicates that there is a pulse deficit of 16 beats per minute. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the difference between the two pulse rates.

2. A healthcare professional is preparing to insert an IV catheter into a client’s arm prior to initiating IV fluid therapy. Which of the following interventions should the healthcare professional implement to prevent infection?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Using a sterile technique throughout the procedure is essential to prevent infection when inserting an IV catheter. This includes maintaining aseptic conditions, using sterile equipment, and following proper hand hygiene practices. Choice A is incorrect because threading the catheter up to the hub does not specifically address infection prevention. Choice C is incorrect as cleaning the insertion site with alcohol only may not provide adequate disinfection, as it is essential to use an antiseptic solution to reduce microbial load. Choice D is incorrect as wearing gloves alone is not sufficient protection against infection; a mask should also be worn to prevent the spread of microorganisms through respiratory secretions.

3. A nurse prepares to admit a client who is immediately postoperative to the unit following abdominal surgery. When transferring the client from the gurney to the bed, what should the nurse do?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when transferring a postoperative client from the gurney to the bed is to lock the wheels on both the bed and the gurney. Locking the wheels ensures stability and prevents accidents during the transfer. Adjusting the bed height may be necessary for comfort but is not the primary concern during the transfer process. Using a slide sheet may be helpful in repositioning the client once on the bed but is not essential for the initial transfer. Asking for assistance from another nurse is always a good practice, but the immediate action to ensure safety during the transfer is to lock the wheels.

4. During a physical assessment on a toddler, what should be the first action?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first action when performing a physical assessment on a toddler is to use minimal physical contact. This approach helps the toddler become comfortable and reduces anxiety during the assessment. Traumatic procedures (Choice A) should never be the first action as they can cause distress. Proceeding from head to toe (Choice C) is a common sequence in physical assessments but does not address the initial need to establish trust and comfort. Explaining the exam in detail (Choice D) is important but should come after establishing a rapport through minimal physical contact.

5. A client with a history of seizures is prescribed phenytoin (Dilantin). What side effect should the healthcare provider report immediately?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Gingival hyperplasia is a significant side effect associated with phenytoin therapy. It is characterized by an overgrowth of gum tissue, which can lead to issues such as difficulty in speaking, eating, and maintaining proper oral hygiene. This condition can progress rapidly and may require immediate intervention by the healthcare provider to prevent further complications. Increased appetite, dry mouth, and nausea/vomiting are common side effects of various medications, but they are not as urgent or serious as gingival hyperplasia in a client taking phenytoin.

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