HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Exam
1. During an admission assessment, a healthcare professional finds a client's radial pulse rate to be 68/min and the simultaneous apical pulse to be 84/min. What is the client’s pulse deficit (per minute)?
- A. 16
- B. 12
- C. 6
- D. 14
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The pulse deficit is calculated by finding the difference between the apical and radial pulse rates. In this case, the difference is 84 - 68 = 16. This indicates that there is a pulse deficit of 16 beats per minute. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the difference between the two pulse rates.
2. What should be included in the therapeutic management of iron deficiency anemia?
- A. Multivitamins
- B. Calcium
- C. Ferrous sulfate
- D. Iodine
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Ferrous sulfate. The therapeutic management of iron deficiency anemia should include iron supplementation, specifically with ferrous sulfate. This helps to replenish the body's iron stores. Multivitamins (choice A) may contain iron, but iron supplementation is more direct and effective. Calcium (choice B) and iodine (choice D) are not typically part of the primary treatment for iron deficiency anemia.
3. The nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with newly diagnosed type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which instruction is most important to prevent complications?
- A. Monitor blood glucose levels regularly
- B. Maintain a low-fat diet
- C. Exercise regularly
- D. Take medication as prescribed
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Regular monitoring of blood glucose levels is crucial in managing diabetes and preventing complications. This allows the client and healthcare team to make timely adjustments to the treatment plan. While maintaining a low-fat diet, exercising regularly, and taking medication as prescribed are all important aspects of diabetes management, monitoring blood glucose levels takes precedence as it provides real-time information about the client's condition and helps prevent acute complications.
4. Which laboratory value is most important to monitor for a patient receiving heparin therapy?
- A. Platelet count
- B. Prothrombin time (PT)
- C. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
- D. International normalized ratio (INR)
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, Partial thromboplastin time (PTT). PTT is monitored to assess the therapeutic effect of heparin therapy. It helps ensure that the heparin levels are within the desired range to prevent either clotting or excessive bleeding. Platelet count (A) is important but does not directly assess heparin's therapeutic effect. Prothrombin time (PT) (B) and International normalized ratio (INR) (D) are used to monitor patients on warfarin, not heparin therapy.
5. When using an open irrigation technique for a client's catheter, what action should the nurse take?
- A. Subtract the amount of irrigant used from the client's urine output.
- B. Add the amount of irrigant used to the urine output measurement.
- C. Measure the amount of irrigant used separately from the urine output.
- D. Document the total amount of fluid used for irrigation only.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when using an open irrigation technique for a client's catheter is to subtract the amount of irrigant used from the client's urine output. This subtraction helps accurately assess the client's output by accounting for the volume of irrigant introduced. Choice B is incorrect because adding the irrigant to the urine output measurement would falsely inflate the total output, leading to inaccurate assessment. Choice C is incorrect as measuring the amount of irrigant separately does not provide an accurate assessment of the client's total output as it disregards the irrigant's contribution. Choice D is incorrect as documenting the total fluid used for irrigation only does not differentiate between the irrigant and the client's actual urine output, which is crucial for accurate monitoring and assessment.