HESI LPN
Pediatric HESI 2023
1. During a physical examination of an infant with Down syndrome, what anomaly should the healthcare provider assess the child for?
- A. Bulging fontanels
- B. Stiff lower extremities
- C. Abnormal heart sounds
- D. Unusual pupillary reactions
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Infants with Down syndrome are at increased risk of congenital heart defects. Therefore, assessing for abnormal heart sounds is crucial during the physical examination. Bulging fontanels are not typically associated with Down syndrome and may indicate increased intracranial pressure. Stiff lower extremities are not a common finding in Down syndrome and may suggest other musculoskeletal issues. Unusual pupillary reactions are not typically linked to Down syndrome and may be indicative of neurological problems instead.
2. Congenital heart defects have traditionally been divided into acyanotic or cyanotic defects. Based on the nurse’s knowledge of congenital heart defects, this system in clinical practice is
- A. helpful because it explains the hemodynamics involved
- B. helpful because children with cyanotic defects are easily identified
- C. problematic because cyanosis is rarely present in children
- D. problematic because children with acyanotic heart defects may develop cyanosis
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The classification is problematic because children with acyanotic heart defects may develop cyanosis, complicating the differentiation between acyanotic and cyanotic defects. Choice A is incorrect because the system is not solely based on explaining hemodynamics. Choice B is incorrect because the classification is not based on the ease of identifying children with cyanotic defects. Choice C is incorrect because cyanosis can indeed be present in children with congenital heart defects, especially acyanotic defects that may lead to cyanosis under certain circumstances.
3. The nurse is caring for a child who has been admitted for a sickle cell crisis. What would the nurse do first to provide adequate pain management?
- A. Administer a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) as ordered.
- B. Use guided imagery and therapeutic touch.
- C. Administer meperidine as ordered.
- D. Initiate pain assessment with a standardized pain scale.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Initiating pain assessment with a standardized pain scale is crucial in effectively managing pain during a sickle cell crisis. This initial step helps the nurse understand the severity of the pain, which guides subsequent interventions. Administering medications, such as NSAIDs or meperidine, should only be done after a thorough pain assessment to ensure appropriate and individualized treatment. Using guided imagery and therapeutic touch may be beneficial as adjunct interventions, but they should not replace the essential first step of assessing the pain level accurately.
4. Surgical repair for patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) is done to prevent the complication of
- A. pulmonary infection
- B. right-to-left shunt of blood
- C. decreased workload on left side of the heart
- D. increased pulmonary vascular congestion
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: increased pulmonary vascular congestion. Surgical repair of patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) aims to prevent the complications associated with increased pulmonary vascular congestion, such as pulmonary hypertension and heart failure. Choice A, pulmonary infection, is not a direct complication of PDA but can occur secondary to other conditions. Choice B, right-to-left shunt of blood, is a feature of some congenital heart defects but not a direct complication of PDA. Choice C, decreased workload on the left side of the heart, is not a primary reason for surgical repair of PDA, as the main concern is the impact on pulmonary circulation.
5. A parent brings an 18-month-old toddler to the clinic. The parent states, 'My child is so difficult to please, has temper tantrums, and annoys me by throwing food from the table.' What is the nurse’s best response?
- A. “Toddlers need discipline to prevent the development of antisocial behaviors.”
- B. “Toddlers are learning to assert independence, and this behavior is expected at this age.”
- C. “It is best to leave the toddler alone in the crib after calmly explaining why the behavior is unacceptable.”
- D. “This is the way a toddler expresses needs, and this behavior is acceptable during the initiative stage of development.”
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: “Toddlers are learning to assert independence, and this behavior is expected at this age.” At 18 months, toddlers are in the stage of developing autonomy and independence. They may exhibit behaviors like temper tantrums and defiance as they assert their independence and test limits. It is crucial for parents and caregivers to understand that these behaviors are typical for toddlers at this age. Choice A is incorrect because discipline should be age-appropriate and focus on positive reinforcement rather than preventing antisocial behaviors. Choice C is inappropriate as leaving a toddler alone in a crib after explaining unacceptable behavior is not a recommended approach and can lead to feelings of abandonment. Choice D is inaccurate as the described behavior is more related to asserting independence rather than the initiative stage of development.
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