Nursing Elites

1. During a physical examination of an infant with Down syndrome, what anomaly should the healthcare provider assess the child for?

• A. Bulging fontanels
• B. Stiff lower extremities
• C. Abnormal heart sounds
• D. Unusual pupillary reactions

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Infants with Down syndrome are at increased risk of congenital heart defects. Therefore, assessing for abnormal heart sounds is crucial during the physical examination. Bulging fontanels are not typically associated with Down syndrome and may indicate increased intracranial pressure. Stiff lower extremities are not a common finding in Down syndrome and may suggest other musculoskeletal issues. Unusual pupillary reactions are not typically linked to Down syndrome and may be indicative of neurological problems instead.

2. What should be included in the teaching plan for parents of an infant diagnosed with phenylketonuria (PKU)?

• A. Mental retardation occurs if PKU is untreated.
• B. Testing for PKU is done immediately after birth.
• C. Treatment for PKU includes lifelong dietary management.
• D. PKU is transmitted by an autosomal recessive gene.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Mental retardation occurs if PKU is untreated.' Phenylketonuria (PKU) is a metabolic disorder that, if left untreated with dietary management, can lead to severe mental retardation due to the accumulation of phenylalanine. It is crucial for parents to understand the potential consequences of untreated PKU to emphasize the importance of early and consistent treatment. Choice B is incorrect because testing for PKU is typically done through newborn screening shortly after birth, not immediately. Choice C is incorrect as treatment for PKU primarily involves strict dietary management that restricts phenylalanine intake, not lifelong medications. Choice D is incorrect as PKU is inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern, meaning that both parents must pass on a mutated gene for the disorder to manifest.

3. A healthcare professional is reviewing the clinical records of infants and children with cardiac disorders who developed heart failure. What did the healthcare professional determine is the last sign of heart failure?

• A. Tachypnea
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Peripheral edema
• D. Periorbital edema

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Peripheral edema is often the last sign of heart failure in infants and children as it indicates significant fluid retention and circulatory compromise. Tachypnea (Choice A) and tachycardia (Choice B) are early signs of heart failure due to the body's compensatory mechanisms. Periorbital edema (Choice D) can occur in heart failure but is not typically the last sign; it is more commonly associated with renal or hepatic dysfunction.

4. A 1-week-old infant has been in the pediatric unit for 18 hours following placement of a spica cast. The nurse observes a respiratory rate of fewer than 24 breaths/min. No other changes are noted. Because the infant is apparently well, the nurse does not report or document the slow respiratory rate. Several hours later, the infant experiences severe respiratory distress and emergency care is necessary. What should be considered if legal action is taken?

• A. Most infants have slow respirations when they are uncomfortable.
• B. The respirations of young infants are irregular, so a drop in rate is unimportant.
• C. Vital signs that are outside the expected parameters are significant and should be documented.
• D. The respiratory tract of young infants is underdeveloped, and their respiratory rate is not significant.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is C. Any vital signs outside the expected range in an infant should be documented and reported, as they may indicate a developing condition that requires prompt attention. Choice A is incorrect because slow respirations in infants should not be dismissed without assessment and documentation. Choice B is incorrect because a drop in respiratory rate in this case was significant and should have been documented. Choice D is incorrect because even though infants have underdeveloped respiratory tracts, any abnormal respiratory rate should be taken seriously and documented for monitoring and intervention if necessary.

5. Which best describes a full-thickness (third-degree) burn?

• A. Erythema and pain
• B. Skin showing erythema followed by blister formation
• C. Destruction of all layers of skin evident with extension into subcutaneous tissue
• D. Destruction injury involving underlying structures such as muscle, fascia, and bone

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A full-thickness (third-degree) burn involves the destruction of all layers of skin, including the epidermis, dermis, and extending into the subcutaneous tissue. This type of burn results in significant tissue damage and can appear pale, charred, or leathery. Choice A is incorrect as erythema and pain are more characteristic of superficial burns. Choice B describes a partial-thickness burn where the skin shows erythema followed by blister formation, involving the epidermis and part of the dermis. Choice D is incorrect as it describes a deeper type of injury involving structures beyond the skin layers, such as muscle, fascia, and bone, which is not specific to a full-thickness burn.

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