HESI LPN
Pediatric HESI 2023
1. What behavior does the nurse anticipate while feeding a newborn with choanal atresia?
- A. Chokes on the feeding
- B. Has difficulty swallowing
- C. Does not appear to be hungry
- D. Takes about half of the feeding
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Correct answer: When feeding a newborn with choanal atresia, the nurse should anticipate that the infant may take only part of the feeding. This behavior is due to the condition causing difficulty in breathing through the nose while feeding, prompting the infant to pause for air. Choice A, 'Chokes on the feeding,' is incorrect as it does not specifically relate to the feeding behavior expected in choanal atresia. Choice B, 'Has difficulty swallowing,' is also incorrect because the issue in choanal atresia is primarily related to breathing rather than swallowing. Choice C, 'Does not appear to be hungry,' is not the typical behavior seen in infants with choanal atresia; they may still display hunger cues but struggle with feeding due to the condition.
2. The nurse is assessing a child with a possible fracture. What would the nurse identify as the most reliable indicator?
- A. Lack of spontaneous movement
- B. Point tenderness
- C. Bruising
- D. Inability to bear weight
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Point tenderness is the most reliable indicator of a possible fracture in a child. It is a localized tenderness experienced when pressure is applied to a specific area, suggesting a potential fracture. This tenderness is considered more specific to a fracture than other symptoms such as lack of spontaneous movement, bruising, or inability to bear weight. Lack of spontaneous movement and inability to bear weight can be present in various musculoskeletal injuries, while bruising may not always be immediate or specific to a fracture.
3. A child is diagnosed with atopic dermatitis. Which laboratory test would the nurse expect the child to undergo to provide additional evidence for this condition?
- A. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
- B. Potassium hydroxide prep
- C. Wound culture
- D. Serum immunoglobulin E (IgE) level
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Serum immunoglobulin E (IgE) level. An elevated serum IgE level is commonly associated with atopic dermatitis, reflecting an allergic response. Choice A, erythrocyte sedimentation rate, is a nonspecific test for inflammation and not specific to atopic dermatitis. Choice B, potassium hydroxide prep, is used to diagnose fungal infections like tinea versicolor, not atopic dermatitis. Choice C, wound culture, is not typically indicated for the diagnosis of atopic dermatitis as it is a chronic inflammatory skin condition rather than an infectious process.
4. When teaching a class about trisomy 21, the instructor would identify the cause of this disorder as:
- A. nondisjunction.
- B. X-linked recessive inheritance.
- C. genomic imprinting.
- D. autosomal dominant inheritance.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: nondisjunction. Trisomy 21, also known as Down syndrome, is caused by nondisjunction, which is an error in cell division leading to an extra copy of chromosome 21. This additional genetic material alters the course of development and causes the characteristics associated with Down syndrome. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. X-linked recessive inheritance refers to genetic disorders carried on the X chromosome, genomic imprinting involves gene expression based on parental origin, and autosomal dominant inheritance relates to disorders caused by a dominant gene on one of the non-sex chromosomes. In the case of trisomy 21, the cause is specifically related to the error in chromosome division, making nondisjunction the most appropriate answer.
5. The nurse is reviewing the laboratory test results of a child diagnosed with disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). What would the nurse interpret as indicative of this disorder?
- A. Shortened prothrombin time
- B. Increased fibrinogen level
- C. Positive fibrin split products
- D. Increased platelets
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Positive fibrin split products are indicative of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). In DIC, there is widespread clotting and subsequent consumption of clotting factors, leading to the formation of fibrin split products. A shortened prothrombin time (Choice A) is not typically seen in DIC as it indicates faster clotting, which is opposite to the pathophysiology of DIC. An increased fibrinogen level (Choice B) may be observed in the early stages of DIC due to the compensatory increase in production, but it is not a definitive indicator. Increased platelets (Choice D) may be seen in the early stages of DIC due to the body's attempt to compensate for clot formation, but it is not a specific finding for DIC.
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